Monday, 11 May 2020

quantum mechanics - Integer number of wavelengths after the wavefunction is normalized in a cubic box


One of the steps when learning quantum mechanics in three dimensions is to normalize ψ in a cubic box of side a. In math terms a0a0a0ψψdxdydz=1, so the normalization constant A, must be such that A2=1a3=1V, thus the periodic boundary conditions ψ(x+a,y,z)=ψ(x,y,z),etc., should hold. This means only an integer number of wavelengths fit in a length a, right?


Now, to me these boundary conditions simply mean that at a the wavelength must be zero. It can be "after" a full length or a half length. My question is, why can't there be a half integer (say 2,5; 4,5) number of wave lengths in any of the box dimensions?



Answer




Now, to me these boundary conditions simply mean that at a the wavelength must be zero. It can be "after" a full length or a half length. My question is, why can't there be a half integer (say 2,5; 4,5) number of wave lengths in any of the box dimensions?



You really need to solve the time-independent Schrödinger equation for that:


[22m2+V(x,y,z)]ψ(x,y,z)=Eψ(x,y,z)


For a single particle in a cubic, zero potential well (V(x,y,z)=0) with infinitely high potential walls:



22m2ψ(x,y,z)=Eψ


Reworked:


ψxx+ψyy+ψzz+k2ψ=0


Where k2=2mE2.


Solve by variable separation(), with Ansatz ψ(x,y,z)=X(x)Y(y)Z(z) that gives three ODEs of which the first is:


X(x)+k2xX(x)=0


\implies X(x)=c_1\cos(k_xx)+c_2\sin(k_xx)


With X(0)=0 \implies c_1=0


X(x)=c_2\sin(k_xx) With X(a)=0: X(a)=c_2\sin(k_xa)=0 \implies k_xa=n_x\pi With n_x=1,2,3,... k_x=\frac{n_x \pi}{a}


For n_x=1, a is half a wave length, for n_x=2, a is a whole wave length, for n_x=3, a is one and a half wave lengths, etc.



The two other ODEs for Y(y) and Z(z) are obtained and solved analogously, obtaining n_y and n_z as quantum numbers.


The integration constants c_2 are obtained by normalising each equation separately, e.g.:


\int_0^aX^2(x)dx=1\implies c_2^2\int_0^a(\sin^2k_xx)dx=1


c_2=\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}


That's allowed because: \int_0^a\int_0^a\int_0^a[X(x)Y(y)Z(z)]^2dxdydz=\int_0^aX^2(x)dx\times\int_0^aY^2(y)dy\times\int_0^aZ^2(z)dz


The Normalised wave function is then:


\psi(x,y,z)=\Big(\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\Big)^3\sin\big(\frac{n_x\pi x}{a}\big)\sin\big(\frac{n_y\pi y}{a}\big)\sin\big(\frac{n_z\pi z}{a}\big)


The quantised energy levels are obtained by inserting the wave function into the PDE, this gives:


k^2=k_x^2+k_y^2+k_z^2


\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{a^2}(n_x^2+n_y^2+n_z^2) E_{x,y,z}=\frac{\pi^2 \hbar^2}{2ma^2}(n_x^2+n_y^2+n_z^2)





(*) Insert Ansatz into PDE: YZX''+XZY''+XYZ''+k^2XYZ=0 Divide by XYZ: \frac{X''}{X}+\frac{Y''}{Y}+\frac{Z''}{Z}=-k^2

\frac{X''}{X}=-\frac{Y''}{Y}-\frac{Z''}{Z}-k^2=-k_x^2


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