How do I / can I actually prove the relationship
[a,b]=0⇒[f(a),g(b)]=0 for all functions f,g.
I'm asking because the following sentence in the solution to my quantum mechanics homework irritates me:
For i≠j , the ˆni commute with one another, and therefore functions of the ˆni always commute with one another.
Where ˆni=ˆa†iˆai with the Bose-Operators ˆa†i,ˆai. It is not my task to prove that relation, but the relation itself was required for being able to solve the exercise.
Answer
For normal elements in a C*-algebra you can do continuous functional calculus, that is, if a is a normal operator, then f(a) is well-defined for any f∈C(σ(a)). Since σ(a) is always compact you can use Stone-Weierstrass to write f as a uniform limit of polynomials in one complex variable and its complex conjugate. Hence you can verify what you need on polynomials. If a and b commute, then a2 and b2 commute and so on. Hence f(a) and g(b) commute for any f∈C(σ(a)) and g∈C(σ(b)). For von Neumann algebras one can push this argument to Borel functions.
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