Saturday 30 April 2016

fluid statics - Pressure change when closing valve inside a column of water


Main question: If you have a column of fluid with a valve as shown on the drawing, what happens to the pressure at the point p when moving from state A to state B and vice-versa?


I'd think it gets suddenly decreased because now it's at a much smaller depth, but I have trouble dealing with the idea of such a sudden change.


Bonus track: What could one say about the force required to open or close that valve? On the 2) section of my silly drawing: what should K be? How close or far away from 1 should it be?


schema


Some thoughts about this problem:



  • When closing the valve, the pressure is even aboe and below the valve level, so I'd think closing the valve doesn;t require lots of force. At least, that force shouldn't be depending on the height of the container.


  • If the pressure does change from one state to the other, then opening the valve could be tricky. The big pressure difference between sides of the valve could cause a problem there. Maybe the required force will be very high (height depending) or maybe the thing would explode (like suddenly opening a door on a flying plane).




mathematical physics - CFTs and formalizing quantum field theory


Moshe's recent questions on formalizing quantum field theory and lattices as a definition of field theory remind me of something I occasionally idly wonder about, and maybe this site can tell me the answer. Are there any mathematicians working on defining quantum field theory by beginning with a rigorous definition of CFTs, and working from there?


The reason I ask is that I think this is how most of us in physics think about quantum field theory (that is, in a Wilsonian way): to define a QFT, you start with a UV fixed point, and deform it with some relevant operator. So if you had a general theory of CFTs, you would know how to understand how CFTs respond to external sources for operators, and getting a more general QFT would "just" mean turning on a spatially homogeneous source for some operator and seeing how it responds.


The other object we study is "effective field theory," which you might imagine in this language is a CFT that serves as the IR fixed point, together with some notion of equivalence class of irrelevant operators deforming "up" away from that point (being agnostic about whether you ever reach a UV fixed point).


Very (extremely) naively, I would suspect mathematicians might have better luck studying the space of CFTs rather than trying to begin with all QFTs. And you might imagine this approach would be well-suited for questions physicists might care about (like, say, whether there is an "a-theorem" or something similar, analogous to the c-theorem in 2 dimensions, characterizing RG flows as irreversible).


Axiomatic/algebraic/constructive field theory seems to worry about all kinds of field theory at once, and other mathematicians seem to be trying to dig up interesting structure in perturbation theory, which I'm not sure will ever lead to progress in nonperturbatively understanding field theory. I know there are some mathematicians who work on CFTs. (I found this MathOverflow question that has a lot of links to work by mathematicians on CFTs, for instance.) But I wonder if any have tried to work on CFTs as a route to understanding QFT more generally.



Answer



CFT consists for most mathematicians - who are interested in this topic - currently of the study of vertex operator algebras, see this question on math overflow:




You can find a little bit more about the topic and the work of several mathematicians here:



As you can see from the answers on mathoverflow, vertex algebras were not invented for the study of CFT, and that they form an axiomatic abstraction of operator algebra products was noted only later.


A personal and very subjective note: One should not underestimate the amount of theoretical physics that is necessary to understand what a QFT is to physicists. Most mathematicians that encounter physics for the first time since highschool through some QFT framework seem to be quite taken aback by the high intrance fee they'd have to pay to understand this. This is my own, personal explanation for the observtion that most mathematicians study the formal machinery only, in order to use it to prove some new mathematical theorems, but only very rarely in order to better understand what physicists do. Although you'll find quite a lot of work by quite a lot of rather famous mathematicians if you follow the links above, AFAIK there is none doing the work you describe.


electrostatics - Why do charges move at the rim of the "charged-disk" conductor in response of the field created by themselves?


Okay, one statement from Purcell's book goes like:



[...]Thus, we find the potential at $P_2$: $$\phi = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} 2\sigma\cos\theta d\theta = \frac{\sigma a}{\pi\epsilon_0}$$. Comparing this with $\sigma a/ 2\epsilon_0$, the potential at the center of the disk, we see that, as we should expect, the potential falls off the center to the edge of the disk. The electric field therefore, must have an outward component in the plane of the disk. That is why, we remarked earlier that the charge , if free to move, would redistribute itself towards the rim. To put it another way, our uniformly charged disk is not a surface of constant potential, which any conducting surface must be unless charge is moving.



Actually Mr. Purcell after deducing the potential at the rim of the uniformly-charged disk, which is an insulator, is telling that if it were a conductor-disk, then there would be a redistribution of the charge towards the rim of the disk as the potential is lesser there & electric field facing in that direction from the center towards the rim. Really? But how?? The field is created by the charges, right? Even he deduced the potential of the rim by integrating the contribution from all the charges in the disk. Then how, if the disk were a conductor, could the charge move towards the rim in response to, although-outward-electric field? It seems ridiculous as the electric field is created by the charges & of course the charges can't get bothered by their own field, isn't it??


But it is true that in a conducting-disk, the charges remain more dense at the rim. Then he seems to be right:( But I am not getting the logic how the charges redistribute in response of the field they created? Can anyone please explain & help me sort out the confusion? Thanks.



Answer



Let's look at the simplest case: two like charges a distance d away. If free to move, they move away from each other and away from the center.



Now imagine three like charges on the corners of an equilateral triangle, if free to move they also move away from the center.


Now imagine four like charges on the corners of a square, if free to move they also move away from the center.


Similarly you can imagine n like charges on the corners of a regular n-gon, if free to move they also move away from the center.


Why? Each charge feels the force from all the other charges.


So if you have a uniformly charged disk each ring feels a push outwards from itself (like out example above each charge feeling all the other charges in the ring) and from the rings closer in. The rings farther out are more complicated since some parts push it in and other parts push it out.


Charges aren't on a sports team; they don't pick and choose which other charges to feel forces from; they feel a force from every other charge in the universe that depends just on where the other charge was and how it was moving (velocity and acceleration).


So in your disk, each charge feels the potential due to every charge.


If it were a conductor, the charge inside would be free to move & so it would move towards outside. The force the charges feel isn't because of some potential difference with infinity; it is more like a local effect based on how the potential is changing right where the charge is. Eventually when the charge is all on the rim there is no electric field inside and in fact the field inside the disk gets smaller and smaller as more and more charge moves to the rim. Eventually the potential is constant throughout the disk and only changes outside the disk.


fluid dynamics - What is the physics behind a soap bubble?



A soap bubble is an extremely thin film of soapy water enclosing air that forms a hollow sphere with an iridescent surface.


What fluid dynamical process occurs during the popping of a soap bubble?




Energy of the particles in the particle accelerator


Recently I came across something and I was surprised. I always thought that huge amount of energy is required to accelerate particles in the accelerator in the particle physics.But looks like no. The peak energy of proton beams at the LHC now is around 7 trillion electron Volts (TeV), which is only like 0.00000121J. So energy involved in particles accelerators is not that much then or am I missing something.? May be since the mass of these partciles is so small, their velocity needs to really high to get this much energy and may be that is the big deal.?




Friday 29 April 2016

electromagnetism - If light propagates as spherical waves, how do the photons from a laser go in a straight line?


I know light travels in straight lines so that the momentum is conserved ($p=h/\lambda$).


However in some derivations I also see that electromagnetic waves propagate as spherical waves, like an expanding balloon.


I'm a bit confused by these two contradicting explanations. I'm not that good at physics. Has this something to do with wave-particle duality ? If so, should we assume one photon as one expanding balloon ? Appreciate any help in clearing this up for me. Thanks!



Answer



It is a matter of the boundary conditions. A spherical light wave comes from a point hole, or a point source. The light waves of the sun , since a very small angle is subtended, can be considered a plane wave.


The light from a laser comes from a particular construction of crystals and reflective surfaces so that the light is coherent as a plane wave and has very small dispersion.


quantum field theory - What is a non linear $sigma$ model?



What exactly is a non linear $\sigma$ model? In many books one can view many different types of non linear $\sigma$ models but I don't understand what is the link between all of them and why it is called $\sigma$.




magic - A five card trick - How does it work?


At a party last night, my friends Alice and Bob did a magic trick. Any ideas how it worked?


Alice shuffled a pack of cards, and asked me to take five. I looked at them. She put the rest of the pack down on the table. Alice asked for my cards. She gave four of them to Bob (he was across the table), and the fifth back to me. Bob looked at the four cards for a while. Then Bob looked at me, and named the card I was holding. He was right. I'm quite sure he couldn't have seen it (we weren't sitting by a mirror).


They did the trick again later to someone else. I watched for funny business. Alice didn't say anything to Bob, so I don't think they have a code. Also Alice is famously clumsy, so I doubt it was sleight of hand.




Edit to answer a question: I learnt the trick from a maths magazine several years ago. I don't know who invented it. "Michael Kleber. The best card trick. Mathematical Intelligencer 24 #1 (Winter 2002)"



Answer



I'm going to assume Alice looked at the cards and chose which one to give back to you. The key to the puzzle is then to encode a single card's suit and value in 4 cards without the luxury of choosing those 4 cards arbitrarily from the whole deck.


The suit is easy. In 5 cards there must be a double of at least one suit. So the first (or last, but I'll choose arbitrarily) card in the bunch she passes is the same suit as yours. Now there are three cards left to encode a number from 1 to 13. However Alice chose which card of your suit to pass to Bob and which to return to you. She can choose according to a rule that gets the number of possible cards down significantly.


The three passed cards can be designated small medium and large according to their number, and then breaking ties by suit order (clubs smallest, diamonds, hearts, spades as in bridge.) This gives six possible numbers to be represented by the 3 passed cards based on their order: SML, SLM, MLS, MSL, LSM, LMS.



So how does she choose which of the suit cards to pass and which to return? Bob will add the encoded number to the passed card (going around K-A-2 if need be) to get the returned card. Alice passes whichever card is within an add of 6.


Say you have the 2 and 4 of spades in your 5. She can't pass the 4 because no number between 1 and 6, added to 4, will wrap around to the 2. So she passes the 2 and encodes 2 in the other three cards by ordering them SLM. If you have the Q and K she passes the Q and encodes 1. If you have the 7 and K she passes the 7 and encodes 6. But 6 and K, she passes the K and encodes 6.


I've tried to find a set of cards you could choose, knowing this algorithm, that would make it impossible to perform the trick, and I can't. Not from a proper deck that doesn't have any duplicate cards.


Digging a Hole and Creating EM Radiation


This evening I was digging a hole for a post. Deep in the hole it was very dark. The digging bar I was using would send off large orange/red sparks when it hit a rock. Being the amateur physicist that I am. I thought, wow, those are about 650 nanometer waves. But, I knew no magnetic lines of flux were cut. I also knew that when an electron is moved to a higher orbit and then falls back down EM waves are generated. So was my bar actually stripping electrons away. What was going on?



Answer



It is the same as the way flint lighters work, steel hitting "rock" .




Iron, whether man-made objects or naturally occurring in rocks, will rust upon exposure to oxygen in the air. The act of rusting is actually an exothermic reaction called “oxidation”, which is a fancy way of saying when iron touches the oxygen in the air a reaction occurs; the iron rusts (turns into iron oxide) and gives off heat. In other words, it burns. The simplified chemical reaction can be expressed as:


Fe2 + O2 = Fe2O3 + heat


Or in simple English: Iron + Oxygen = Rust + Heat



.................



Small Particles Have Larger Surface Area – As can be seen in this illustration, the total surface area of the smaller cubes greatly exceeds the surface are of the cube taken as a whole.When a tiny particle of fresh iron is broken off from the main mass, the surface area of the particle is very large in comparison to its total size.Upon contact with oxygen in the air, the tiny iron spontaneously ignites (also known as rusts or oxidizes) and glows red hot.



On the atomic level of the broken off cubes, black body radiation mechanisms are involved, transitions in vibrational and rotational levels of the molecules and at the tail of the black body distribution electron excitations and deexcitations.The initial energy is supplied by the chemical proccess: iron oxide is at a lower energy level than pure iron +O2.



Thursday 28 April 2016

differential geometry - Conformal transformation vs diffeomorphisms


I am reading Di Francesco's "Conformal Field Theory" and in page 95 he defines a conformal transformation as a mapping $x \mapsto x'$ such that the metric is invariant up to scale:



$$g'_{\mu \nu}(x') = \Lambda(x) g_{\mu \nu} (x).$$



On the other hand we know from GR that under any coordinate transformation the metric changes as



$$ g_{\mu \nu} (x) \mapsto g'_{\mu \nu}(x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} .$$




I feel like there is a notation problem (inconsistency) in these formulas, or maybe I am mixing active and passive coordinate transformations. For instance, if we consider a simple rotation (which is of course a conformal transformation with no rescaling, i.e. $\Lambda(x)=1$) then from the first formula we see that $g'_{\mu \nu}(x') = g_{\mu \nu} (x)$, whereas from the second formula we get something more complicated. Where is the flaw?


In the "String theory" lecture notes by David Tong the same definition of conformal transformation is given. Then he says:



A transformation of the form (4.1) has a diferent interpretation depending on whether we are considering a fixed background metric $g_{\mu \nu}$, or a dynamical background metric. When the metric is dynamical, the transformation is a diffeomorphism; this is a gauge symmetry. When the background is fixed, the transformation should be thought of as an honest, physical symmetry, taking the point $x$ to point $x'$. This is now a global symmetry with the corresponding conserved currents.



I think it has to do with my question, but I don't fully understand it...



Answer



OK I think I know what is going on. It's all about primes. Consider an active spacetime transformation:




$$ x^{\mu} \mapsto x'^{\mu}(x)$$


$$g_{\mu \nu} (x) \mapsto g'_{\mu \nu} (x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}}$$.



(the transformation of the metric tensor follows from the fact that it is a rank 2 tensor). With this notation both Di Francesco and David Tong are wrong (as far as I understand). The GR book by Zee on the other hand writes it properly. First of all consider an isometry. This is an spacetime transformation as before that leaves the metric invariant, meaning



$$ g'_{\mu \nu} (x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} = g_{\mu \nu} (x')$$.



(watch the primes). On the other hand a conformal transformation is a transformation that satisfies a weaker condition: it leaves the metric invariant up to scale, meaning



$$ g'_{\mu \nu} (x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} = \Omega^2(x')g_{\mu \nu} (x')$$.




Now there should be no inconsistency. Di Francesco's definition was wrong (according to this convention/notation/understanding) because it compared the metric before and after the transformation at different points, and you have to compare them at the same point.


knowledge - Written every which way



enter image description here



Looking for the name of a country.





This puzzle is part of Recycling old answers.



Answer



I think the answer is



Cote D'Ivoire (or possibly Ivory Coast to fit with the overall meta-puzzle)



Reasoning



This is to do with flags.
If you take the first part of the flag of Nigeria and the last part of the flag of Peru and combine them, you get the flag of Italy.

Similarly, if you take the second half of the flag of Sudan, reverse and copy to the first half, it becomes the flag of Yemen.
If you turn the flag of Ireland upsidedown, it becomes the flag of Cote D'Ivoire.



Wednesday 27 April 2016

electromagnetism - Are there any crystallographic effects we can see in the reflection of visible light from metal surfaces?


I started thinking about this in a discussion in comments.


One can start by thinking of the reflection of visible light by most metals as similar to the reflection of radio waves in that it's an interaction between an electromagnetic wave and an infinite half-plane of dense electron plasma. So long as the frequency is somewhat below the plasma frequency, this is a good starting point. Once in a while there are strong, obvious atomic effects such as gold metal being gold in color but many/most crystalline, amorphous and molten metals have high specular reflectivity and little obvious spectral variation, i.e. most of them look more or less "silvery".


Are there any crystallographic effects in the specular reflection from smooth metal surfaces that are visibly detectable either by looking at a reflection, or doing a simple experiment without an ellipsometer or other special equipment? Perhaps a simple polarizer film or plastic diffraction grating or something around a school science lab or home?


A visible "crystallographic effects" might be for example a difference in appearance or easy-to-observe optical behavior between



  1. two polished faces of a metal crystal having different crystallographic orientations,

  2. two polished faces of two metal samples of different crystallographic grain size, or one being totally amorphous

  3. a polished face of a metal crystal and the surface of the metal liquid at nearly the same temperature.



or it could be something visible that "happens" at a certain angle or under a certain condition or color of illumination for one sample but not another.




riddle - Just a bunch of dudes


My prefix is dude.


My infix is little dude.


My suffix is too loud, dude.


I'm a stand-up dude.



Answer



I think the answer might be




Paladin



My prefix is dude.



Pal



My infix is little dude.



Lad




My suffix is too loud, dude.



Din



I'm a stand-up dude.



A paladin was a knight renowned for heroism and chivalry



gravity - Why doesn't my particle simulation end in a flat disc?


I've made a 3d particle simulator where particles are attracted to each other by the inverse of the square radius. The purpose of my experiment is to see if this alone would create a flat disk (like some galaxies) since the inverse of the radius is the same as gravity and we can consider the particles stars. The particles (or stars) are initially randomly distributed around a a point in space with a start velocity as the cross product of the vector pointing towards the center and the axis of rotation (to make sure there is a net angular momentum).


As you probably already guessed this is not enough to make it form a flat disc. I've been reading about galaxies and found that the cause of the disc shape is because angular momentum is hard to get rid of. However, angular momentum is not really a separate law right? I mean, by using the attraction by the inverse square of the radius the angular momentum should be constant? Please, correct me if I'm wrong.


So what am I missing? Dark matter? Dissertation? I realize that galaxy formation is a REALLY broad and advanced topic but my simulation is ONLY to get particles to form a disc shape.


Any help appreciated!



Answer



You get a disk when the particles lose energy (often by radiating it away) but keep their angular momentum.


Galaxies are made of stars, but the stars are born from clouds of gas. The gas has many ways to radiate energy away, which can cause it to settle into a disk. The stars may then be formed in the disk structure.



Not all galaxies are disks, though, many are spherical. As you say, it's not a simple problem and it depends sensitively on the initial conditions.


riddle - I'm the first of my kind



See me once, I'm the first of my kind
See me twice, unhealthy lives we left behind


See me once, because there's only one
See me twice, then there's something we shun



Hint:



See me once, some mistake me for a mountaintop

See me thrice, without me many devices flop



Good Luck!


Here are the previous riddles in this series (the solutions there have nothing to do with this one, only the process of getting there).
#1, #2, #3, #4, #5, #6, #7, #8



Answer



I believe you are:



the letter 'a'




See me once, I'm the first of my kind



First letter in the alphabet



See me twice, unhealthy lives we left behind



AA stands for alcoholics anonymous which helps recovering addicts



See me once, because there's only one




use the word a when there is one of an item( a chair, a table , etc.)



See me twice, then there's something we shun



not sure for this part but maybe AA like a scream or shout? People tend to ignore/not help AA and in a sense shun it. Hopefully third times the charm: People in AA shun alcohol?



Hints: See me once, some mistake me for a mountaintop



A capital A looks like a cartoonish mountain




See me thrice, without me many devices flop



As pointed out by @El-Guest AAA batteries are commonly used in devices to power them



variational calculus - BRST Quantization of the Bosonic String: Nilpotence of BRST transformation (Polchinski)


Currently I am studying string theory and I encountered a bunch of interrelated problems in the context of BRST quantization which I can't solve for myself although I tried hard for some days.


My question concerns the BRST transformation of the bosonic string in eq. (4.3.1) of Polchinski's book. In the paragraph following these transformations, Polchinski says that "the reader can check nilpotence up to the equations of motion". I tried but wasn't able to complete the proof - here my calculations:


$$\begin{align} \delta_\mathrm{B}\delta_\mathrm{B}'X^\mu&=\delta_\mathrm{B}\left[\mathrm{i}\varepsilon'\left(c\partial X^\mu+\bar{c}\bar{\partial}X^\mu\right)\right]\\[2pt] &=\mathrm{i}\varepsilon'\left[(\delta_\mathrm{B}c)\partial X^\mu+c(\delta_\mathrm{B}\partial X^\mu)+(\delta_\mathrm{B}\bar{c})\partial X^\mu+\bar{c}(\delta_\mathrm{B}\bar{\partial} X^\mu)\right]\\[2pt] &=\mathrm{i}\varepsilon'\left[(\mathrm{i}\varepsilon c\partial c)\partial X^\mu+c(\mathrm{i}\varepsilon(c\partial\partial X^\mu+\bar{c}\underbrace{\bar{\partial}\partial X^\mu}_{=0}))+(\mathrm{i}\varepsilon\bar{c}\bar{\partial}\bar{c})\bar{\partial}X^\mu+\bar{c}(\mathrm{i}\varepsilon(c\underbrace{\partial\bar{\partial}X^\mu}_{=0}+\bar{c}\bar{\partial}\bar{\partial}X^\mu))\right]\\[2pt] &=-\varepsilon'\left[\varepsilon c\partial c\partial X^\mu+c\varepsilon c\partial\partial X^\mu+\varepsilon\bar{c}\bar{\partial}\bar{c}\bar{\partial}X^\mu+\bar{c}\varepsilon\bar{c}\bar{\partial}\bar{\partial}X^\mu\right]\\[2pt] &=-\varepsilon'\varepsilon \left[c\partial c\partial X^\mu-\underbrace{c c}_{=0}\partial\partial X^\mu+\bar{c}\bar{\partial}\bar{c}\bar{\partial}X^\mu-\underbrace{\bar{c}\bar{c}}_{=0}\bar{\partial}\bar{\partial}X^\mu\right]\\[2pt] &=-\varepsilon'\varepsilon \left[c\partial c\partial X^\mu+\bar{c}\bar{\partial}\bar{c}\bar{\partial}X^\mu\right]\\[2pt] &=? \end{align}$$



Here I used the equation of motion for the field $X^\mu$ and exploited $c^2=0=\bar{c}^2$. At this point, however, I do not see why the remaining terms should vanish.



Answer



Hint: The infinitesimal BRST transformation $$\delta_{\mathrm{B}}\left(F[X,c,\ldots]\right)~:=~F[X+\delta_{\mathrm{B}}X,c+\delta_{\mathrm{B}}c,\ldots]-F[X,c,\ldots]\tag{A}$$ acts "under" the spacetime derivatives marked in red, i.e. OP's second line should read $$\begin{align} \delta_{\mathrm{B}}\delta_\mathrm{B}'X^\mu &\stackrel{(4.3.1a)}=\delta_\mathrm{B}\left[\mathrm{i}\varepsilon'\left(c\color{red}{\partial} X^\mu+\bar{c}\color{red}{\bar{\partial}}X^\mu\right)\right]\\[2pt] &~~~\stackrel{(A)}=~~~\mathrm{i}\varepsilon'\left[(c+\delta_{\mathrm{B}}c)\color{red}{\partial} (X^\mu+\delta_{\mathrm{B}}X^\mu)+(\bar{c}+\delta_{\mathrm{B}}\bar{c})\color{red}{\bar{\partial}}(X^\mu+\delta_{\mathrm{B}}X^\mu)-c\color{red}{\partial} X^\mu-\bar{c}\color{red}{\bar{\partial}}X^\mu\right]\\[2pt] &~~~=~~~\mathrm{i}\varepsilon'\left[(\delta_\mathrm{B}c)\color{red}{\partial} X^\mu +c\color{red}{\partial}(\delta_\mathrm{B}X^\mu) +(\delta_\mathrm{B}\bar{c})\color{red}{\bar{\partial}} X^\mu +\bar{c}\color{red}{\bar{\partial}}(\delta_\mathrm{B}X^\mu)\right]\\[2pt] &~~~=~~~\ldots\tag{B} \end{align}$$


fluid dynamics - Buoyancy and natural convection in a stratified water tank


I'm working on a simple calculation-model for a hot-water-storage. At the moment I'm stuck on implementing natural convection.


To calculate the temperature I've implemented a simple 1D-model in python. My tank consists of vertically stacked volumes/cells. If the temperature of one cell is higher than that of the cell above, as shown for cell 5 with a temperature of 50°C, I want to calculate the resulting massflow.


Model of instable stratified tank


So far I tried to implement the buoyancy-model used in modelica (which is calculating a heat-flow instead of a massflow. That's quite ok...). But I can't get it to work properly. The resulting increase in temperature is just massive (and the units don't fit)... The code for the model can be found here: Modelica buoyancy model
A short example for my calculations (default values are for the mean temperature of T4 and T5: 40°C): $$ \tau = 60\,s, \ \ V = 0.1\,m^3, \ \ T_4 = 30\,^\circ C, \ \ T_5 = 50\,^\circ C, \ \ \rho_{def} = 992.21\,\frac{kg}{m^3}, \ \ c_{p_{def}} = 4178.63\,\frac{J}{kgK} $$ $\Delta T = 20\,K$
$k = \frac{V \rho_{def} c_{p_{def}}}{\tau} = 6910\,\frac{W}{K}$
$Q_{flow} = \dot{Q} = k * \Delta T^2 = 2.7641e6\,\frac{JK}{s}$

$Q = Q_{flow} * \tau = 1.6584e8\,JK$
$\delta T = \frac{Q}{c_{p_{def}}V\rho_{def}} = 400\,K^2$
$sqrt(\delta T) = 20\,K = \Delta T$
So basically the result is my input... Is there a mistake in translating the modelica-code to equations? Or how does modelica get useful results out of this?


My second approach to solve the buoyancy-problem is the use of equations for thermals as in this link at page 171: Plumes and Thermals
But here I'm stuck at calculating the correct buoyancy of cell 5. (I know this sounds simple, but after about 4 days of trying to solve this problem I guess my brain just turned to butter).
When calculation the buoyancy like shown in this image: Pressure_distribution_on_an_immersed_cube


And transferring this to my storage-model with cells:
How do I calculate the forces on cell 5? Do I have to consider the density of cells 1 to 3 to calculate the force on the top of cell 5 and cell 6 for the force on the bottom of cell 5?
Or if working with displaced fluid and using the buoyancy forumla $B = \frac{\rho_\infty - \rho_{Cell 5}}{\rho_\infty} g V$: Which density should I use for the surrounding fluid? Am I calculating the density by 50% density of cell 4 and 50% density of cell 6?



Thanks so far! And if anyone got a better idea on how to work on the buoyancy calculation: I'm grateful for your advices!




newtonian mechanics - Significance of the second focus in elliptical orbits



1.In classical mechanics, using Newton's laws, the ellipticity of orbits is derived. It is also said that the center of mass is at one of the foci.


2.Each body will orbit the center of the mass of the system.


My question is : Are the assumptions in 1 and 2 correct?


Follow up question : Assuming the distance from the centre of the mass to each body remains the same, do we have two bodies orbiting the centre of the mass of the system in an elliptical or circular orbit?


Finally : With elliptical orbits, if the heavier mass is supposed to be in one of the foci, if there is any significance to second focus, what is it? Is it a Lagrange point by any chance or does it have some other mathematical property?



Answer



Tides & second focus


The second (empty) focus is relevant in the theory of tides. In an elliptical orbit, the line joining the planet and the empty focus rotates at the same frequency as the mean motion of the planet; therefore, if spin rotation period is equal to the orbital period (the planet is locked in a synchronous rotation), the planet rotates with one face pointing to the empty focus.


Importantly, a tidal bulge will try to point to the massive object (the occupied focus) while the planet itself will be pointing to the empty focus, causing a "librational tide".


Tuesday 26 April 2016

quantum mechanics - Is this a photograph of an electron-positron annihilation?



With degrees in Mechanical and Electrical engineering but no advanced education in physics, I submit a query based on ellipsometric macro photography of TEMS supplied by FDA/NIH. In one TEM a triangle of RNA/DNA indicates ionic activity.
PHOTO 1. 100nm RNA/DNA Traingle


This piqued my curiosity, so I photographed the 100nm size triangle with a macro lens in order to enlarge the 35-42,000x TEM further and obtained unexpected images upon which the question is based.


I angled the macro lens camera to the light source hoping to enhance the images within the photographic gel. The black-gray shades in TEMS are not ink but silver atoms crystallized in the original film negative by electron beams then projected into a silver-halide photographic gel. Electrons convert silver halide over 10,000 times more efficiently than photons. The biological samples, dark stained with nano-gold, provide a plethora of particle targets and possibly emit surface plasmon resonances that generate latent photon induced images hidden due to the shortened photographic development time required to form primary images with electron precipitated silver atoms.


Collisions between electrons and particles must have occurred as can be seen in the spiraling burst emanating from a point above the bottom angle of the triangle that impressed me as having ionic interactions. The triangle legs are about 2nm wide with 100nm between vertices. Microvilli sized ion channels appear to be in the picometer range and may be waves generated from electron collisions.


PHOTO 2. Electron-particle collision erupts above lower angle



An invisible clear cloud seemed to lie between the left two vertices and I took hundreds of photos in an attempt to illuminate it.


A spiraling cloud illuminated


PHOTO 3 is the result of those efforts. I assume the cloud to be one of those hypothetical latent images of energy associated with electron-particle collision. Unfortunately the color forces in QED do not relate to colors.


PHOTO 4 was taken in the same area as PHOTO 3 with a different lens-light configuration. Annihilation?


Might the simultaneous Lycurgus Cup-like red/green~emission/absorption seen in PHOTO 4 correspond to an electron travelling back in time (positron) colliding with an electron beamed or displaced in the TEM vacuum and depict an annihilation?



Answer



There exist pictures of positron annihilations and creation of electron positron pairs. Here is one:


positron anihilation


A positron in flight annihilates with an electron into two gammas, which are invisible. One of them materializes at a certain distance from the track stop, resulting in a new electron-positron pair (marked with green)


These are taken in bubble chambers with a magnetic field perpendicular to the plane. What you are photographing is much more like what is seen in nuclear emulsions.



Chemical and biological energies are of the order of eV. To create a positron with a mass of ~500.keV is not possible. From what I see the TEMS has at most keV energies in the electron beam You may be seeing muons from the continuous muon background at sea level . The flux if I remember correctly is 1 per centimeter square per second ( all energies). These could kick off electrons and even have enough energy to create electron positron pairs but it would not be a repeatable phenomenon since the flux is random. Also to see how elementary particle tracks would look in your material you would need to calibrate it at some accelerator lab.


quantum mechanics - If photons don't oscillate, how do they oscillate?


The internet has told me seemingly contradictory things, and I hope you folks might help me sort it out.


This blog post states: "Electromagnetic waves are waves from electric and magnetic fields that oscillate perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation." The post and this video make clear that this diagram represents an individual photon.


enter image description here


However, an answer on Stack Exchange states that a photon, "does not oscillate." So what is the above image of?


That answer was in a response to a question about how photons can oscillate, given that they do not experience time. It went on to explain: "it is the probability of finding [the photon] at (x,y,z,t) that has a sinusoidal distribution. Its only experiences are interactions with other elementary particles. It only has energy, momentum and spin, no oscilations describe it."


However, energy and momentum are characteristics describing a wave function, so this doesn't get away from the image of an oscilating wave. Also, I thought the wave function is the photon, which is the probability of the photon interacting (being found) somewhere. So if the wave function has a sinusoidal distribution, the photon itself has a sinusoidal distribution.


I particularly have trouble imagining how circular polarization is created by something that does not oscilate in time.



enter image description here


And it gets worse when I try to understand light defracting with itself.


enter image description here


My best guess is this: the wave function is static and unchanging, and only its position in space changes. Circular polarization happens because the position of the wave function rotates while it moves, but the wave function itself doesn't change in the process. When light defracts in the two-slit experiment, that is because the position of the photon is interfering with other parts of the same photon, but the underlying wave function remains unchanged and, in a sense, static.


Huge thanks if you can help me understand how a wave doesn't actually wave, and how or why my interpretation is off.




general relativity - Using the Metric in Book Gravitation (MTW)


Here is the whole Box 2.2, at Page 55


Gravitation Box 2.2



The dot behind the second $-p^2$ seems to be a "planck mass" (sarcasm, flea egg) or just the book's style to use Dot behind the equations. So the Equation is basically;


$-p^2=m=E^2-p^2$ which can be written


$-p^2=E^2-p^2$ and if we add on both sides $+p^2$ we have


$0 = E^2$


My question is "What is wrong here?" as here is no logic.


The same problem is already written above as $p^2=-E^2+p^2$ which is again nothing else than
$0=-E^2$


In my World I see it so; $m^2=0$
thus $m^2=E^2-p^2$ is $0=E^2-p^2$ and $E^2=p^2$



Answer




It's a bit hard to see in this typography, but the two p are supposed to be different. The p on the l.h.s. is the four-momentum $p = (p^0,p^1,p^2,p^3)^T$, the one on the r.h.s is the three-momentum $\vec p = (p^1,p^2,p^3)^T$, and then $$ p^2 = E^2 - \vec p ^2$$ for $p^0 = E$ is tautologically true just from the definition of $p^2$.


newtonian mechanics - Is there an intuitive reason the brachistochrone and the tautochrone are the same curve?


The brachistochrone problem asks what shape a hill should be so a ball slides down in the least time. The tautochrone problem asks what shape yields an oscillation frequency that is independent of amplitude. The answer to both problems is a cycloid.


Is there an intuitive reason why these problems have the same answer?


Proposed operational definition of "intuitive": Imagine modifying the problem slightly, either to the brachistochrone tunnel problem (tunnel through Earth), or by taking account of the finite radius of the ball. If the answer to the original question is intuitive, we should easily be able to tell whether these modified situations continue to have the same brachistochrone and tautochrone curves.



Answer



They are not the same in nearly any situation except for the constant force field. The two conditions are completely separate, and it is a miracle of cycloid algebra that leads them to coincide in the constant force case. But it is possible to understand both problems intuitively.


Isochrone/Tautochrone


The isochrone problem asks for a curve along which the oscillations take equal times no matter what the amplitude. The solution to this problem in the general case is to find a curve such that the potential V along the arclength of the curve is that of a harmonic oscillator



$$ V(\phi) = {As^2 \over 2} $$


Where I have absorbed the part of V linear in s into a redefinition of the origin of s, and the constant part of V into the definition of zero potential.


For a constant force field, the solution is that curve whose height is proportional to the arclength squared. To see that this is the cycloid, parametrize the cycloid by the rolling circle coordinates so that $x=0$,$y=0$ is the minimum position at $\theta=0$:


$$x = R (\theta + \sin(\theta))$$ $$y = R ( 1- \cos(\theta)) $$


And verify that $$ dx = R( 1+cos(\theta) $$ $$ dy = R sin(\theta) $$


so that the arclength is: $$ ds^2 = dx^2 + dy^2 = 2R(1-\cos(\theta)) d\theta^2 = {2dy^2\over y}$$


from the last differential condition, the height as a function of arclength is: $$ {y\over R} = {s^2\over 8R^2}$$


and this allows you to write x as a function of s too, by solving for $\theta$ in terms of y:


$$ {x\over R} = \cos^{-1}( 1- {s^2\over 8 R^2}) + {s\over 2R} \sqrt{ 1- {s^2\over 16R^2})} $$


The algebra is annoying enough, so set R to 1 by rescaling x and y appropriately, and this gives the arclength parametrization of the cycloid explicitly



$$ y = {s^2\over 8} $$ $$ x = \cos^{-1}(1- {s^2\over 8}) + {s\over 2} \sqrt{1-({s\over 4})^2}$$


The fact that the height of a cycloid is its arclength squared is the central property of the cycloid which gives all the other special properties.


The differential relations on a cycloid, the unit tangent, and the osculating circle, are given by differentiating the above forms


$$ {dy\over ds} = {s\over 4} $$ $$ {dx\over ds} = \sqrt{1-({s\over 4})^2} $$


The x derivative is easy to compute from the y-derivative, using the fact that the arclength derivative must have unit length. You can also take the formal derivative of x in s, but this is tedious to reduce (but of course it works).


The second derivative with respect to s gives the best-fit-circle direction and inverse-radius:


$$ {d^2y\over ds^2} = {1\over 4} $$ $$ {d^2x\over ds^2} = -{{s\over 16}\over \sqrt{1-({s\over 4})^2} } $$


The x equation follows from the y equation after imposing the condition that the second derivative vector with respect to arclength has zero dot product with the first derivative, so that (switching to dot notation for arclength derivatives)


$$ \dot{x}\ddot{x} + \dot{y}\ddot{y}=0$$


The The magnitude of the second derivative with respect to arclength is the inverse-radius of a best-fit circle to the curve (which follows by rotational invariance from the fact that this is correct for a parabola at the origin of the form $y={x^2\over 2R}$, where R is the best fit circle).



The resulting formula for the inverse-radius of the best-fit circle is important, because it gives the centripetal acceleration for a particle sliding down the cycloid at a velocity v. This inverse radius is


$$ {1\over R} = \sqrt{\ddot{x}^2 + \ddot{y}^2} = {{1\over 4}\over \sqrt{1-({s\over 4})^2} } $$


When a particle starts at rest at the top of the cycloid, sliding down in a field with a unit gravitational acceleration downwards, its velocity at any height is given by conservation of energy:


$$v^2 = 2(2-y) = 2 ( 2- {s^2\over 8}) = 4 (1-({s\over 4})^2)$$


This means that the centripetal acceleration at any point is given by:


$$ {v_0^2\over R} = \sqrt{1-({s\over 4})^2} = \dot{x}$$


In other words, the centripetal acceleration inwards is equal to the component of the tangent vector in the x direction, which is also the component of gravity outward. When you slide along a cycloid, the centripetal acceleration is equal and opposite to the pull of gravity out. This condition is very important--- this is the Brachistochrone condition.


Brachistochrone


The Brachistochrone problem is much more involved than the isochrone. The isochrone is solved by imposing the condition that the force along the curve is linear in arclength, which is conceptually simple, and does not involve the force perpendicular to the curve. The isochrone condition involves only the force perpendicular to the curve, and the force along the curve is only involved to the extent that it determines the particle velocity at any position.


To solve the Brachistochrone in a maximally insightful way, consider a particle traveling with velocity $v_0$ along the segment of the x axis between $-\Delta$ and $\Delta$. This particle makes the trip in a time which is twice $\Delta\over v_0$. Deform the straight line into a parabola, keeping the endpoints fixed:



$$ y = {1\over 2R} (x^2 - \Delta^2)$$


where R is chosen to parametrize the parabola by its best-fit circle, and the form is determined by the boundary conditions, and $\Delta$ is thought of as infinitesimal. Then there is a little bit of extra length in this curve, which is:


$$ \int_{-\Delta}^{\Delta} \sqrt{1-({dy\over dx})^2} dx= \int_{-\Delta}^{\Delta} {x^2\over 2R^2} = {\Delta^3\over R^2}$$


Which gives a little bit of extra time for the particle to cross


$$ \Delta^3 \over R^2 v_0 $$


Supposing there is a force with components $f_x, -f_y$ acting on the particle in this region (the sign on $f_y$ is only so that positive $f_y$ match the mental picture of a downward pulling gravity), the potential is $-f_x x - f_y y$$. The velocity is determined by conservation of energy to be


$$ v = \sqrt{v_0^2 + 2 (f_x x - f_y y) } = v_0 + {f_x x - f_y y \over v_0} $$


The inverse velocity is, to lowest relevant order


$$ {1\over v} = {1\over v_0} - {f_x x - f_y y \over v_0^3}$$


Which, when integrated, gives a little bit of time gained



$$ \int_{-\Delta}^{\Delta} {1\over v} dx = {2 f_y \Delta^3\over 3 v_0^3 R} $$


The sum of the extra time from the arclength and the time gained from the force gives the time difference for the parabolic arc:


$$ \Delta^3 ( {2 f_y \over 3 v_0^3 R} - {1\over 3 R^2 v_0} ) $$


Which attains its minimum when


$$ {1\over R} = {f_y \over v_0^2} $$


This is the Brachistochrone condition--- to have an extremum, the local curvature must be such that the centripetal force equals the external force perpendicular to the curve.


$$ {v^2\over R} = f_y $$


This is a local condition, consistent to the lowest relevant infinitesimal order in $\Delta$, so it must be satisfied by the normal force at each point along the Brachistochrone. This condition is satisfied by a cycloid, as was shown above. Note that the Brachistochrone doesn't care about $f_x$, it only cares about matching $f_y$ to the centripetal force. The force tangent to the curve is only used to find the instantaneous velocity.


Deforming the Isochrone


The Brachistochrone condition is determined only by the force perpendicular to the curve, while the isochrone condition only cares that the force along the curve is linear in the arclength parametrization. So it is easy to break the Brachistochrone condition while keeping the isochrone condition satisfied.



Take any force law with a given isochrone curve x(s),y(s) and add a vector field which is everywhere orthogonal to the isochrone. This vector field will ruin the Brachistochrone condition, but not do anything to the isochrone condition-- the curve will have a longitudinal force linear in arclength, but it will no longer have a transverse force which matches the centripetal force, so it will no longer be a Brachistochrone.


Most damning of all, if you look at the isochronous motions of the cycloid, most of them are not Brachistochrone motions. If you start a particle sliding from rest anywhere except at the top of the cycloid, it's motion is isochronous with the particle sliding from the top, but it is not extremal for the Brachistochrone problem. The relevant Brachistochrone cycloid for a particle at rest always has the cycloid kink at the starting position--- the particle is at the tippy-top of the cycloid.


So the deformations which define the isochrone nature are not in the solution space of the Brachistochrone problem.


If you look at a harmonic oscillator (like motion in the center of the Earth), there are fine isochrones along any straight line, since the restriction of a quadratic potential to a line is quadratic. But these lines are straight, so they have no centripetal force, but they have much perpendicular force, so they are not Brachistochrones.


If you start with a Brachistochrone, and you want to deform it to not be an isochrone, this is a little more involved, because the deformation changes the instantaneous velocity. But it can be done as well. Add an arbitrary potential V(s) to the potential on the isochrone, and adjust the perpendicular component of the force on the curve to match the new centripetal force appropriate to the velocity of the particle sliding in this potential. This adjustment will keep the Brachistochrone property, but it will break the isochrone property.


For an example of a nice Brachistochrone which is nothing like an isochrone, consider the potential


$$ V(x,y) = x + x^2+y^2 - (\sqrt{x^2+y^2}-1)*x$$


The unit circle is a brachistochrone for a particle with just enough energy to be at rest at $x=1$. The potential energy at angle $\theta$ along the circle is


$$ V(\theta) = cos(\theta) + {1\over 2}$$


the velocity squared of this particle is



$$ v^2 = 2(1-cos(\theta))$$


Which is also the centripetal force. The outward force on the unit circle has been engineered to match the force required by the Brachistochrone condition.


Solving Arclength equations


One thing is still unsatisfying in the discussion above. The Brachistochrone condition was not used to find the cylcoid solution, only to check that the cylcoid works. This is not reasonable, since similar differential equations pop up all the time, and there should be a good way of finding the exact relations they obey without knowing them in advance.


But the method for solving the Brachistochrone is not difficult, given the above. You start with the arclength parametrization conditions


$$ \dot{x}^2 + \dot{y}^2 =1 $$


$$ \dot{x} \ddot{x} + \dot{y}\ddot{y} = 0$$


and you write the arclength version of the Brachistochrone condition:


$$ 2(y_0-y) \sqrt{\ddot{x}^2 + \ddot{y}^2} = \dot{x} $$


Substitute $\dot{x}=\sqrt{1-\dot{y}^2}$ and $\ddot{x}=-{\dot{y}\over\dot{x}}\ddot{y}$, and you obtain the Brachistochrone height-arclength equation in terms of the variable $u=y_0-y$,



$$ 2u \ddot{u} - \dot{u}^2 = 1 $$


This equation looks formidable, because it is nonlinear, but it possesses a nonobvious extra scale symmetry. When you scale x and y by a factor R, the arclength scales by the same factor, so that the derivative $\dot{u}$ is invariant. The product $u\ddot{u}$ is also invariant. The reason for choosing the variable u, and not y, is that the natural Brachistochrone scaling is around the axis $y=y_0$. The scale symmetry suggests a transformation of variables, and the right one is


$$ {d\over ds} ({\dot{u}\over \sqrt{u}}) = {1\over 2u^{3/2}}$$


or, using $v=\sqrt{u}$,


$$ \ddot{v}= - {1\over 2v^3} $$


This is the equation for one dimensional motion in a $1/r^2$ potential, which can be solved by conservation of energy (the x-translation symmetry of the Brachistochrone). The general solution makes v a circle function, which makes $y$ quadratic, recovering the cycloid. The reason the equation looks complicated is because of the multiplicative way in which the integration constant appears in the general solution:


$$ y(s)-y_0 = R ({s\over R} - s_0)^2 $$


I hope that this explanation declaws Newton to some extent, because his reasoning regarding this was always mysterious to me. It looks as if an oracle provided him with the correct answer so that he could solve the problem. You can solve a whole family of related differential equations in the same way, changing the coefficient "2" to another value, which gives different exponents for the change of variables which transform the problem to a 1d mechanics motion. It is also clear that the special algebraic differntial relations of arclength problems are made manifest using the arclength parametrization.


crosswords - Arsenic Based Life


Part of the Fortnightly Topic Challenge #35: Restricted Title 1




Down


1 Character in mario whose name does not match his species



2 Sebiora


3 Bread for a panini


4 Impolite way to say woman


5 Between non and sine


6 To be human


7 riiiiip in pieces xxxdddd so done


9 Good puzzles hagee them


10 Vehicle for transporting large things


11 Most emails, probably


13 Vehicle for descending hills



17 Lamcer ray


18 Advertise for your own product


19 Someone with a bad tepper


20 2.75 pounds in turkish


21 One of many ways of saying nonsb


22 Resort for relaxation


23 Help


28 Polite way to say woman


29 UK insult


30 Scienc-y container



33 Strongly recommend


34 Me, myself, and I, perhaps


35 Often said to be the first programmer


36 ordway enerallygay azndsay ikelay isthay


37 Fourth letter, phonetically


Across


1 Field with CPSEs


5 WWWWW


8 Word which crossword puzzles have told me means a collection of things


9 Allay any fears



12 Arsenic-Based Life


14 Emulate a clock at 1:08


15 Dalaas


16 Arsenic-Based Life


22 Word that means and also contains a word that means conbrumed


24 [Clue removed for potential spoilers -- even though it's been a month by now...]


25 Food with a pocket


26 More than graffiti


27 Arsenic-Based Life


31 Solo at an opern



32 Cuhade


35 Arsenic-Based Life


39 Type of fuega


40 Flips over to the dark side, in Othello


41 Chopper


42 Some poems


enter image description here


How should your life b(As)e?



Answer



Building off @phenomist's answer:




The incorrect clue letters are all one- or two-letter chemical symbols; the proper letter is always a single letter.
In Down-then-Across order, the substitutions are (BI -> N), (GE -> V), (MC -> S), [P -> M], [SB -> E], [ZN -> I], [SE -> U], [AS -> I], [BR -> S], [N -> A], [CU -> S], [GA -> L]
Writing the single correct letters in the appropriate locations on a periodic table reveals two crossing A. S. names, "AMIENS" and "SILVIUS". The source of these names is a particular Shakespearean play, and the final answer.
enter image description here



Final answer: How should your life be?



AS YOU LIKE IT




wall thickness and acoustic impedance


I want to know how the geometry,more specificaly a thickness of simple wall affects how much will sound be reflected and how much will pass through.


I tried to search this on google for one and half hours but I didnt found single article or even single graph dedicated to this topic.I got bunch of thickness vs absorbtion stuff but that is not of interest for me,absorbtion and reflection are different things,perfect absorber have zero reflection.


Every article I found only talker about acoustic impedance of solid material compared to air,but it never mentions the thickness of the solid material.My point is,tungsten have 230000 times bigger impedance than air,but if you make wall of tungsten that is very thin,like lets say 100 atoms thick,then it will reflect sound less than if the wall was 1 meter thick.


If I know the impedance of air,if I know the intrinsic impedance of the material,then how do I calculate how much is reflected and how much transmitted at specific freqency and specific wall thickness?


Can you please give me links to articles or studies/white papers that are about wall thickness impact on reflectance? What words should I type in google so it give me results that are about reflectance/transmittance vs wall thickness instead of articles that talk purely about either absorbtion vs wall thickness or just mention that materials with increasing impedance difference cause increasing sound reflection but never mentions the critical aspect,the key factor that this all depends on the thickness of that wall not just intrinsic acoustic impedance of the material its made from.




cosmology - Do all black holes spin in the same direction?



My question is as stated above, do all black holes spin the same direction? To my knowledge, the spin in the direction of the spin of the matter that created them. Another similar question was asked here, regarding whether they spin clock-wise or counter clock-wise, and the answer was that it was irrelevant, and dependent upon the position of the looker. My question is more specifically, are all black holes existent, spinning in the same direction? Basis an intuition around, all matter/space/time is expanding outward in a similar fashion from the start point (not a fixed point in space I realize) of the universe. So does that mean that all matter inherently spins around a central axis from which the universe expanded from? In this case, all black holes would seem to be rotating along similar parameters, as all the matter that could create them are spinning as such. However I do not know enough on the details of the universal expansion nor black holes to confirm this.


To end, consider that two black holes are spinning in opposite directions, observed from the position of an observer looking at an xy-plane, one would be spinning from higher to lower numbers on the x axis and the other from lower to high numbers on the x axis, and assume both were at a fixed line on the y axis.




enigmatic puzzle - Treasure hunt 'round the world! (prologue)


It's here. Finally here. For weeks you've waited, checking the mail every single day, to no avail - but today, your invitation has finally arrived. You eagerly tear open the envelope and read:




Congratulations, [insert username here]! You have been selected as a member of this year's Treasure Hunt 'Round the World! Or at least, you're a preliminary member -- of course, we have to weed out the doers from the dreamers, and that's what this first challenge is for. Please solve it, and write us back at [redacted] with the answer attached. Then and only then will you receive your true invitation to the games.


Yours truly,


Bailey M
Puzzlemaster for the Treasure Hunt 'Round the World



At last, you can begin the puzzling experience of a lifetime! Excitedly, you flip over the card and read:



$$ ? = \frac{303116229854873}{31} $$


We've given you the answer... but what's the question?






The story continues in the next part, Treasure hunt 'round the world! (clue 1)


This is no longer being treated as a semi-interactive puzzle. Rather, it will be a linked-puzzle treasure hunt, which each clue being its own puzzle.



Answer




convert 303116229854873 to Base-31, we get BECAUSE789.



The question is




Why was 6 afraid of 7?



The answer is



Because 7 ate 9



A puzzle in 140 characters


Your final answer will respond to the question "Why don't I like Twitter that much?"


Like usual, I'll confirm any sub-answers if you find them


enter image description here


Here's the link to the puzzle on Twitter.


Here's the text of the puzzle:




🐾❄🥅#📌♠💦
255879⠗⠕⠞⠼⠁⠊⠉:⠺⠠⠰⠶⠮∞WᒧO3>H∽UO)
Z⊢せம佛أر➪ᓭܜ⚡ﺪトΛíĆẸİĿMṈOṖ$ŦŪVYA
hot new vow⊔N⌶ⅽ✜ዐᛊfirsts🐌🌮🚇✒🔑
🛑🐣➖💅☄📂🎹🎩V𝙸२-ƧΞ⊕ꘜ⊞।
Ʌ𝟾⎕META:…|#/|@…:@**¢#1¢1:/




Answer



NOTE: If you upvote this, please upvote the puzzle itself too! It took far more effort to make than my solution did.



🐾❄🥅#📌♠💦255879



This is a word square:
PAW
ICE
NET
Extract the letters in the positions 2, 5, 5, 8, 7, 9 on a phone keypad to get ACCENT.



⠗⠕⠞⠼⠁⠊⠉:⠺⠠⠰⠶⠮




The first part (before the colon) says "ROT193".
Logically, that's ROT180 + ROT13.
So, do that to everything after the colon - flip it upside down (rot180), decode as Braille, then rot13 it to get ATONE.



∞WᒧO3>H∽UO)Z⊢



Turn your head sideways - it reads as "BELOW VISCOUNT", and the rank below Viscount is BARON.



せம佛أر➪ᓭܜ⚡ﺪトΛí




Start with the section left of the arrow. Those are characters from various languages: SE, MA, PHO, and RE. So we interpret the things right of the arrow as flag semaphore to get COLOGNE.



ĆẸİĿMṈOṖ\$ŦŪVY



You can rearrange these to get ĆOṈ$ŪMṖŦİVẸĿY. The accents there are Morse code for TORI, and "Tori, consumptively" is a crossword clue (though oddly phrased) for DONUTS.



A hot new vow



This is just a cryptic clue for OATH. (Thanks, Sp3000!)




⊔N⌶ⅽ✜ዐᛊfirsts



This says "Unicode firsts", but in a weird way. Take the characters that make up "Unicode", look them up in Unicode, and take the first letters of the official names to get SLASHER.



🐌🌮🚇✒🔑🛑🐣➖💅☄📂🎹🎩



This is simply a rebus.
Before the minus sign we have SNAIL TACO METRO PEN KEY STOP HATCH. After, we have NAIL COMET OPEN KEYS TOP HAT. Removing the latter from the former gives us S[nail]TA[comet]R[open][keys][tophat]CH, or STARCH.



V𝙸२-ƧΞ⊕ꘜ⊞।Ʌ𝟾⎕




The middle symbol (that looks like a circled plus sign) means "exclusive or" - basically, overlap and remove anything that's black in both symbols. Do that to the six symbols on either side and you get the word THRASH.



META:…|#/|@…:@**¢#1¢1:/



All the words are made up of a punctuation mark with two letters inserted (or on the sides). For instance, COLO(g)N(e) --> COLON and (t)H(r)ASH --> HASH. Those punctuation marks appear twice each in the text after "META:". Replace the two occurrences with the two extra letters, in order.
enter image description here
You don't like Twitter because it has NOT ENOUGH CHARACTER!



newtonian mechanics - Lifting frictional force and relative values for kinetic vs static friction


My physics textbook says that friction mainly arises due to intermolecular attraction between atoms of the objects in contact and clashes between peaks are only significant for rough surfaces. I was wondering, if friction arises due to intermolecular attraction, why doesn't it oppose lifting a body as well(considering that the atoms are attracted to each other). Why doesn't it oppose rolling? (even when there is no slippage, if atoms of the contact patch are attracted to the atoms in the ground, there should be a force opposing movement)



Another related question: Is there an intuitive reason why(for most pairs of surfaces) kinetic friction is lower than static friction?




electromagnetism - Is the electron's magnetic dipole moment influenced by the measurement method?


The electric charge of an electron at rest is a constant value and is not influenced by the measurement instrument. The measurement instrument by itself can give more or less accurate result, but does not influence the strength of the electron's charge.


What is about the electron's magnetic moment. This moment is clearly linked with the electron's spin. Was the value of this magnetic moment corrected due to the measurement methods or due to a better theory?


The main question is: Is the electron's magnetic dipole moment influenced by the measurement method?



Answer



What's tabulated by the Particle Data Group is the electron's magnetic moment anomaly, $$ a = \frac{\mu_\mathrm e}{\mu_B} - 1 = \frac{g-2}{2}, $$ which has a magnitude of $a\approx10^{-3}$ and is currently known to about eleven decimal places. (Note that this does not mean we know the electron's magnetic moment to fourteen decimal places: there is also part-per-billion uncertainty in the value of the Bohr magneton, and that uncertainty is increased if you try to use macroscopic units.)



Measurements of the magnetic moment anomaly seem to be based on single trapped electrons; this one is the most recent.


I haven't re-read the most recent CODATA paper to see where the $10^{-9}$ uncertainty in the Bohr magneton comes from. The Bohr magneton is $$ \mu_B = \frac{e\hbar}{2m_\mathrm e} $$ and its uncertainty is larger than the uncertainty in the ratio of the electron mass to the carbon-12 mass, but smaller than the best uncertainty in the value of Planck's constant.


To answer your question directly: isolating the electron's intrinsic magnetic moment from instrumental artifacts is a deeply important part of any such measurement.


particle physics - Is there a concise-but-thorough statement of the Standard Model?



I’m a grad student in high-energy physics. I’m familiar enough with the Standard Model, but I’ve always wondered whether there existed a canonical statement of, effectively, “what we talk about when we talk about the Standard Model”. Obviously the SM didn’t spring fully-formed from the pen of one author, but since its inception surely someone has compiled our current understanding into one document?


(The closest things I’ve found to this are the Wikipedia article and the explanatory chapters of the PDG.)




optics - What electric field vector should I use for modeling unpolarized light?


Regardless of computational cost, light is a kind of electromagnetic wave, so it can be simulated with Maxwell's equations. If we want to simulate light with Maxwell's equations, we need to express the electric field vector of light source with a formula.


If the light source is polarized, this task won't be hard, but what if I want to simulate natural light: to be precise, unpolarized light?


Is there any approximate formula for it?


If the final result I want to get is just light intensity, can I simply replace the unpolarized light source with a polarized one?



Well, to be honest, this question came to my mind when I read a paper that simulate light in a nanometric optic probe with Maxwell's equations and the incident light in that paper is polarized, I just want to know if unpolarized light is also available for Maxwell's equations.



Answer



To simulate unpolarized light, you need to do two separate simulations using Maxwell's equations.


In the first simulation, assume the incoming light has some polarization (any polarization will do). In the second simulation, assume that the light has the opposite polarization (y is opposite to x, right-circular-polarized is opposite to left-circular-polarized, etc.).


Now imagine that at every moment, randomly, the light is switching back and forth between these two simulations, too fast to measure. So the intensity for unpolarized light is the average of the intensity in the two simulations, the optical force is the average of the forces in the two simulations, etc. etc.


For more details see this answer and comments: https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/31975/3811


Monday 25 April 2016

homework and exercises - What is the distribution of charge on two conducting spheres?


There are two conducting spheres of charges $Q_1$ and $Q_2$ and respective radii of $r_1$ and $r_2$ with center-to-center separation of $L$. Can the distribution of charge on each of the conducting spheres be calculated? If so, how can this be done? Can the net electrostatic forces on each of the spheres also be calculated? This is not a homework problem, simply a problem that interests me because I feel that its solution could help me to better understand how conductors work, as I am struggling with them immensely. I did not find a similar question on stack exchange, so I've posted this one.



Answer



To do this you must use the electrostatic image method :


The problem with two spheres is that you will have image charges of the image charges



Here is a diagram of what it will look like after two iterations :


Conducting Spheres


Using the method of images we have the image charges inside the spheres:



  • $Q_1$ has an image $q'_1$ located at $O_2 - ( \frac{R_2^2}{D} )$ with $q'_1 = Q1 \frac{-R_2}{D}$

  • $Q_2$ has an image $q'_2$ located at $O_1 + ( \frac{R_1^2}{D} )$ with $q'_2 = Q1 \frac{-R_1}{D}$


These images have also images charges in the other sphere :



  • $q'_1$ has an image $q''_1$ located at $O_1 + ( \frac{R_1^2}{distance(q'_1, O_1)} )$ with $q''_1 = q'_1 \frac{-R_1}{distance(q'_1, O_1)}$


  • $q'_2$ has an image $q''_2$ located at $O_2 - ( \frac{R_2^2}{distance(q'_2, O_2)} )$ with $q''_2 = q'_2 \frac{-R_2}{distance(q'_2, O_2)}$


We can keep going on until it converges


In order to conserve the charges on the surface of the spheres $Q_1$ and $ Q_2$ we must place a charge at the centre of the spheres equal to :




  • $Q_1-q'_2 - q''_1 - ...$ at the center of $O_1$




  • $Q_2-q'_1 - q''_2 - ...$ at the center of $O_2$





By replacing the surface of the conductors by all the image charges you get a situation equivalent to the an irregular surface charge on the spheres.


If you want to calculate the potential at any point you can use :


$V(M) =\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} (\frac{Q_1-q'_2 - q''_1}{d(M,O_1)} +\frac{Q_2-q'_1 - q''_2}{d(M,O_2)}+ \frac{q'_2}{d(M,q'_2)} + \frac{q'_1}{d(M,q'_1)} + \frac{q''_2}{d(M,q''_2)} + \frac{q''_1}{d(M,q''_1)}) + ...$


physical constants - Planck mass is about the mass of one eyebrow hair



Unlike most Planck units named after "Planck" such as Planck length, Planck temperature, etc, the Planck mass seems more closed to daily life. It is about $10^{-5}$g, same order of magnitude of one eyebrow hair or a flea egg.


I am just wondering is there any interesting explanation about the relation between Planck mass and the mass of small lives such as flea.




elasticity - Range of poissons ratio



I know the range of poisson's ratio is -1 to 0.5 but how do you arrive at this expression? I am a 11th grade student and I am not too familiar with advanced physics




Answer



The answer is a bit lengthy, but can be arrived at using arguments about elastic strain energy. Here is a very detailed explanation:


Limits of Poisson's ratio in isotropic solid


This was written at a graduate mechanical engineering level, so I'll simplify it here.


Imagine that there exists a function $\psi$ that describes how much energy is contained in a solid per unit volume. This quantity is a function of material properties and deformation. For a linear elastic, isotropic solid, the material properties are Young's modulus (E), and the Poisson ratio ($\nu$).


One of the assumptions of the theory of elasticity is that the elastic energy $\psi$ is a function that is strictly increasing for all conceivable deformations. The details of this assumption are in my other answer (the link), but it turns out that $\nu$ can only be in the interval


$$ -1 < \nu < \frac{1}{2} $$


I hope this clears up your question at an appropriate level. Let me know in the comments if not!


electromagnetism - Direction of magnetic field in a solenoid?


Using the right hand rule I struggle to visualise/ work out how to tell which is the north and South Pole. It's all so confusing that the right hand rule refers to conventional current not electron so when looking at diagrams it adds to the problem What is a easy way of finding the N and S Pole of a solenoid?



Answer



The north and south pole of a solenoid depends on two factors. One, the direction of the current flow and two, the direction of the winding (clockwise or counter-clockwise). Start by determine the positive pole of the power source (e.g: battery), then the end of the solenoid that you are going to connect to it. Now, looking down the solenoid tube determine what direction is the winding. If clockwise in relation to the positive wire then is the south pole, if anti-clockwise then is the north pole. So, to summarize the magnetic south pole is always clockwise in relation to the positive wire.


What is missing from this sequence of words?


What is missing from this sequence?



SUM, SUN, SIX, -, SIP




Source: GCHQ Puzzle book



Answer



My answer is:



SNORCIMO



Explaination:



The word sequence given contains in order the 12th (Mu), 13th (Nu), 14th (Xi), and 16th (Pi) letters of the Greek alphabet reversed with an added "S". The missing Greek letter in the order is the 15th letter of the alphabet (Omicron). Following the same naming convention gives you SNORCIMO:

Mu = SUM

Nu = SUN
Xi = SIX
Omicron = SNORCIMO
Pi = SIP



acceleration - How to find speed when accelerating down a slanted wire


I saw this picture on one of my social media sites with the caption, "I'd do this in a heart beat! Who's with me!"


enter image description here


I was about to go balls to the walls and say, "I'm in! When and where??" But then I got to thinking, how fast would I be going when I hit the water? If I were going too fast, would it hurt me?


SO I was trying to figure this out, and I'm not very good at physics so I was wondering if you guys could help me out.


I estimate the guy is 90 kg in mass, the wire is angled pi/6 from the horizontal and he's about 50 meters above the water when he starts (all estimates...).



What is the formulas I need to figure out the speed the guy will be going once he hits the water? I know there's some calculus in there, and I'm pretty good at calculus.



Answer



The only force which works is gravity$^1$. So, change in gravitational potential energy equals final Kinetic energy(assume initial is zero). $$mgh=mv^2/2$$ $$v=\sqrt{2gh}$$


here $h$ is vertical height traversed.See the velocity does not depend on angle of string, mass of body too..




Let's see the kinematics of body.


The length of string is $h cosec\theta$ ($\theta $ being angle with horizontal assumed $\pi/6$)


acceleration of body along the string=$g\sin\theta$


Now $\text{using} : v^2=u^2+2as$


$$v^2=0+2\times h cosec\theta\times g \sin\theta$$ $$v=\sqrt{2gh}$$





Working in differentials

for $v$ along the rope. $$dv/dt=v\dfrac{dv}{dx}=a$$ $$\int_0^{v_f} v.dv=\int_0^{hcosec\theta} a.dx=ax\Bigg|_0^{hsosec\theta}$$ $$\dfrac{v_f^2}2=gsin\theta.hcosec\theta \ \ ; \ \ a=gsin\theta$$




$1)$Assuming the pulley being used to slide to be friction less.Though not possible.Also the rope is assumed to be in-extensible and straight.

quantum field theory - Introductory examples of AdS/CFT duality


I would like to know, what are the simplest/starting/basic examples that are typically used to introduce students to how AdS/CFT really works? (not the MAGOO paper, as I am not sure it has concrete examples that a beginning student can work through)


For example, are the PhD. papers of Maldacena used for this purpose? What about the papers on holographic entanglement entropy (like the ones by Faulkner and Hartman and Shinsei Ryyu and Takayanagi)? Or the papers on worldsheet derivation of the duality like http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0703141 (and its predecessors) and http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0205297 and the Gopakumar-Vafa papers of '98?




Sunday 24 April 2016

logical deduction - What is the result of the equation?


Considering from $a$ until $z$:


$x = (x -a) \cdot (x -b) \cdot (x -c) \dots (x - z)$


What I want is the value of $x$


It´s something easy, but I could not find this here and I think it´s a nice puzzle.




Answer



if $x = \textrm{anything}\cdot(x-x)$ then $x$ has to be $0$


Without knowing the answer, if you start with an assumed value for each of the variables, regardless of the value you assume for any of the variables when you evaluate $x-x$ this would become $0$.


So regardless of other variables, if $x = \textrm{anything}\cdot(x-x)$ then $x$ has to be $0$


riddle - See me once, see me twice #2


I had a lot of fun with my "see me once, see me twice" question, so I thought I'd make a series out of them.


So here is the next riddle:



see me once, the hammer falls.
see me twice, the gamer calls.



As last time, it starts with only one 2-liner. Additional hints will be given almost hourly.


First Hint:




see me once, and I'm hidden inside
see me twice, game over is implied



Second Hint:



see me once, when I'm lighter than a plum
see me thrice, out of the tunnel you come



Third Hint: (and last one for today)




the "see me once" part refers to a different meaning of me in every two-liner



Last Hints:



the see-me-once in the first hint feels really good when found.
What don't you have in tunnels? It doesn't matter whether you're in a train or a car



See the last one in the series: See me once, see me twice #1



Answer




Are you



G



See me once



the hammer falls -> G, a unit for gravity
I'm hidden inside -> ummm, well...the g-spot?
I'm lighter than a plum -> g, a unit for weight (gram)




See me twice



the gamer calls, game over is implied -> gg ("good game") is often said when a match ends in gaming



See me thrice



out of the tunnel you come -> I think this refers to 3G phone service, which you would lose while traveling through a tunnel



riddle - The Gnosis questions(2)


This is the second question in the series: The Gnosis questions


"Since people look at round figures with suspicion,

They added two, to an Indian's estimation for a foreigner named object.
Look, it's slowly walking away from you..."
What is it(the object)?



Answer



I think it is :



Mount Everest



Because




In 1856, the Great Trigonometrical Survey of India established the first published height of Everest, then known as Peak XV, at 29,002 ft. It was calculated to be exactly 29,000 ft high, but was publicly declared to be 29,002 ft in order to avoid the impression that an exact height of 29,000 feet was nothing more than a rounded estimate.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mount_Everest

I don't have an answer for "Look, it's slowly walking away from you" - unless someone quoted this when adding the 2 feet.



dimensional analysis - Confusion With How Dimensions Work



Form what I understand if you have an equation such as:


$$v = v_0 + at$$


then the dimensions must match on both sides i.e. $L/T = L/T$ (which is true in this case), but I have seen equations such as 'position as a function of time' $x(t) = 1 + t^2$, and obviously time is in $T$, but apparently the function gives you position which is $L$... so what happens to $T$ and where does the $L$ come from? I thought dimensions must always match...


Also, let us say that you know the time to reach a destination is proportional to distance i.e. double the distance and you get double the time, now this makes sense to me, but as I said earlier I thought that dimensions must always be consistent or else you can not make comparisons in physics, so if you are giving me $L$ (the distance), how can that become $T$ (time) all of a sudden?



Answer



Units must always be consistent, that is correct. So using your example of:


$$ x(t) = 1 + t^2 $$


where the left hand side has units of $L$ (distance). This means the constant $1$ on the right side has implied units of $L$ while the coefficient in front of $t^2$ (which has the value of $1$) has implied units of $L/T^2$.


In other words, the units do match but they get attached to the constants multiplying each term.


dimensional analysis - Functions and Length Scales


Regretfully I have to start with an apology as I fear I might be unable to express the question rigorously.


Often reading physics papers the concept of "length scale" is used, in statements such as "over this length scale, the phenomenon can be characterized by an exponential decay", or "the increase in X is virtually linear over such and such time scale". The Nobel Laureate De Gennes seems to me a virtuoso in this particular art.



I am able to follow some reasoning, but I am not so sure I understand fully their methods. For example, let us imagine I have got a model characterizing the change of a certain quantity, $Y$, versus time $t$: $$Y = e^{-A/t}$$ where $A$ is a constant. The function tends to zero for small times, it is first concave and then becomes convex. One expects to be able to characterize the "length scales" at which the transition occurs, in relation to the constant $A$. How can that be done? I tried to calculate the second derivative, which equals $$Y'' = e^{-A/t} \frac{A^2}{t^4} - 2 e^{-A/t} \frac{A}{t^3}$$ so imposing the conditions it equals zero I get the equation $$ \frac{A}{t^4} = \frac {2}{t^3}$$ suggesting the conclusion the concave-convex transition occurs at "time scales in the order of A", is this correct?


But what truly puzzles me is how to characterize, for example, the time scale over which the functions is "almost flat", in the initial concave region. For example, if one fixes $A = 100$ and plot the function for a maximum $t = 5$, intuitively one suspects there must be a way to say "over such and such length scale, the function is flat". I wonder if to give sense to this statement one should specify which variations in the functions can be considered negligible.


Thanks a lot for any help on this I appreciate rather misty question.




everyday life - Settling of rice as it's cooked


I couldn't think of a better title because I'm not sure what's going on with this phenomenon--someone who has an answer, please edit to fit this better.


I noticed that when I cook rice, at some point after most of the water has evaporated and the rice is settled at the bottom of the pot, there is a "lattice" of regularly-spaced gaps in how the grains at the top are arranged, with the holes extending down a grain or two.


I can try to explain this better if it doesn't make sense, but for now I can't do much better because it mystifies me. What's up here?


(Better tag suggestions are also welcome...)




fluid dynamics - How to calculate pressure loss due to water leakage from a hole in a pressurized unit


I am trying to develop a method for calculting the rate of pressure loss from a small hole in a pressurized vessel full of water (small air pocket likely at top of vessel).


I've found a formula for calculting the flow rate of a liquid through a small hole (link), but I don't know how to relate this to a rate of pressure decay as it is kind of a cyclical process. As water leaves the vessel, the water pressure would decrease, thus also decreasing the flow rate. This would probably happen until surface tension stopped the leak.



My thought is that, assuming a rigid vessel, pressure would decrease as a function of the volume of water in the vessel, and the pressure and the flow rate as some sort of differential equation perhaps, but I'm not sure how to go about deriving that.


The application in question is the hydrostatic testing of plate heat exchangers. When completing unbalanced tests, water is pumped into one side of the heat exchanger and held at this pressure for a period of time. My thinking is that given a leak, the pressure should drop quite quickly thus indicating a failure. Alternatively, the rate at which the pressure drops should allow us to back calculate the rate of water leakage and maybe even hole size.


Any help or direction would be super appreciated.


Thanks!




Understanding Stagnation point in pitot fluid

What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...