I have this doubt:
Imagine two operators $A$ and $B$ and the state $\psi$.
I know that the following statement is true:
$$\langle\psi| A|\psi\rangle^*=\langle\psi| A^\dagger|\psi\rangle$$
But is it correct to write: $$ \langle\psi|AB|\psi\rangle^*=\langle\psi|B^\dagger A^\dagger|\psi\rangle=\langle\psi|B^\dagger A^\dagger\psi\rangle\hspace{15pt}?$$
This doubt came to me, because I was doing some execises and applied this identity. I found out that what I reached was wrong. I tried to find the error and only this came to my head.
Answer
Dirac notation is ill-suited for non-self-adjoint operators. Here's why:
Let $(-,-)$ be the inner product on our Hilbert space. The expectation value of $AB$ is then $$ \langle AB \rangle_\psi = (\psi,AB\psi)$$ by definition, and Dirac notation writes $\langle \psi \vert AB \vert \psi \rangle$. for this. But, in this notation, it is no longer clear to which side the operator $AB$ acts - one could as well interpret this expression as meaning $(BA\psi,\psi)$, which is not the same if $A,B$ are not self-adjoint. So, by $$ \langle \psi \vert A \vert \psi \rangle^\ast = \langle \psi \vert A^\dagger \vert \psi \rangle$$ you really mean $$ (\psi,A\psi)^\ast = (A\psi,\psi) = (\psi,A^\dagger\psi)$$ where the last equality is by definition of the adjoint.
So, examining the expression with $AB$, we find $$ (\psi,AB\psi)^\ast = (AB\psi,\psi) = (\psi,(AB)^\dagger\psi) = (\psi,B^\dagger A^\dagger\psi)$$ and thus $$ \langle \psi \vert AB \vert \psi \rangle^\ast = \langle\psi\vert B^\dagger A^\dagger \vert \psi \rangle $$ if all operators are interpreted as acting on the states to their right. However, since this is not usually understood - for self-adjoint operators it doesn't matter, and many texts freely switch the direction of the action of the operators whenever convenient - you should refrain from using Dirac notation for operators which are not self-adjoint.
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