Since Newton's laws are defined for point particles, I'd like to derive some laws of motions for rigid bodies only by considering a rigid body as a system of particles such that the distances from every particle to every other particle doesn't change with time. I think I derived that the force applied on one particle of a rigid body must be the same for every other particle of the rigid body in one dimension by the following:
Consider two particles on a line P1 and P2 both with masses dm and positions x1 and x2. Let's say that a force F1 acts on the particle P1. By Newton's second law we get: F1=dmd2x1dt2 By the definition of a rigid body, the distance between P1 and P2 doesn't change with time. Define r as this distance ie. r=x1−x2. Therefore: drdt=0 Taking the derivative of both sides we further get that d2rdt2=0 d2(x1−x2)dt2=0 d2x1dt2=d2x2dt2 By Newton's second law this is the same as: F1dm=F2dm (where F2 is the force acting on P2), and since dm≠0 finally: F1=F2
These steps can be done for arbitrary amount of particles, and so we get that in one dimension, if a force is applied on one of the particle of a rigid body, every other particle of the rigid body experiences the same force.
The problem is that I cannot do a similar proof for two dimensions by defining the distance r=√(x1−x2)2+(y1−y2)2, but I'm sure that it can be done, and that if done torque, moment of inertia and center of mass would arise. Can someone do a similar proof for two dimensions, if it can be done like this at all?
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