What would happen if instead of F=m∗d2x/dt2, we had F=m∗d3x/dt3 or higher?
Intuitively, I have always seen a justification for ∼1/r2 forces as the "forces being divided equally over the area of a sphere of radius r".
But why n=2 in F=m∗dnx/dtn ?
What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...
No comments:
Post a Comment