First of all, I'm a mathematician that knows less than the basics of QFT, so forgive me if this question is trivial. Please, keep in my mind that my background in physics is very poor.
1) The usual process of quantization of a free scalar field on Q is by using Weyl operators W(f) for each f∈S⊂L2(T∗Q) (where S is a space of solutions) such that W(f)W(g)=exp(−iσ(f,g))W(f+g)
This process is explained for the Klein-Gordon equation here The most general procedure for quantization
2) On the other side, in http://arxiv.org/abs/physics/9801019 and http://arxiv.org/abs/math-ph/0408008, given a configuration bundle F↠X
Given Cauchy surface Σ⊂X, it's possible to produce a (pre-)symplectic form ΩΣ=∫ΣωL
Locally on coordinates θL=∂L∂vaμ∧dua∧dx0∧…∧^dxμ∧…∧dxn+(L−∂L∂vaμvaμ)dx
3) Analogously in http://arxiv.org/1402.1282 and http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/multisymplectic+geometry, one can consider the first variation δL=∑a(ELL)a∧δua+dθL
In a lot of references, it's said that the variational principle 3) coincides with 2). It's said too that θL in 3) coincides with the usual boundary condition ∑a,μ∂L∂vaμδua
Now my main question is : How can one relate 1) to 3)?
More precisely, are the symplectic forms the same in these two approaches? If not, do canonical quantization of 3) (via Weyl CCR or non-exponeniated CCR) produce an equivalent QFT?
EDIT
The second of my minor question is obviously true, because of the Stokes formula. The boundary condition can be written as ∫∂V∑a,μ∂L∂vaμδuavol∂V=∫V∑a,μd(∂L∂vaμδua)dx
Anyway the first minor question remains. In other words, is θL=∂L∂vaμδuadx in 3) equals to ∂L∂vaμ∧dua∧dx0∧…∧^dxμ∧…∧dxn+(L−∂L∂vaμvaμ)dx (θL in 2))?
All the terms except Ldx seems reasonable to appear in θL of 3).
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