Let's say I have the Lagrangian: L=T−V.
Along with the constraint that f≡f(→q,t)=0.
We can then write: L′=T−V+λf.
What is my Hamiltonian now? Is it H′=˙qipi−L′ ?
Or something different? I have found at least one example where using the above formula gives a different answer then the Hamiltonian found by decreasing the degrees of freedom by one rather then using Lagrange multipliers.
Answer
Comments to the question (v2):
To go from the Lagrangian to the Hamiltonian formalism, one should perform a (possible singular) Legendre transformation. Traditionally this is done via the Dirac-Bergmann recipe/cookbook, see e.g. Refs. 1-2. Note in particular, that the constraint f may generate a secondary constraint
g := {f,H′}PB+∂f∂t ≈ dfdt ≈ 0.
[Here the ≈ symbol means equality modulo eqs. of motion or constraints.]
References:
P.A.M. Dirac, Lectures on QM, (1964).
M. Henneaux and C. Teitelboim, Quantization of Gauge Systems, 1994.
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