Tuesday, 29 September 2015

quantum field theory - Why is the functional integral of a functional derivative zero?


I'm reading Quantum Field Theory and Critical Phenomena, 4th ed., by Zinn-Justin and on page 154 I came across the statement that the functional integral of a functional derivative is zero, i.e. $$\int [d\phi ]\frac{\delta F[\phi]}{\delta\phi^{\alpha}(x)} = 0$$ for any functional $F[\phi ]$.


I would be most thankful if you could provide a mathematical proof for this identity.




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