I'm reading Quantum Field Theory and Critical Phenomena, 4th ed., by Zinn-Justin and on page 154 I came across the statement that the functional integral of a functional derivative is zero, i.e. ∫[dϕ]δF[ϕ]δϕα(x)=0
for any functional F[ϕ].
I would be most thankful if you could provide a mathematical proof for this identity.
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