Is there an intuitive explanation why it is plausible that the gravitational force which acts between two point masses is proportional to the inverse square of the distance $r$ between the masses (and not only to the inverse of $r$)?
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Why can't we use fissions products for electricity production ? As far has I know fissions products from current nuclear power plants cr...
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I have searched for equations regarding craters and I came across two of them. The first one is from this NOAO website in the level two sec...
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How can we know the order of a Feynman diagram just from the pictorial representation? Is it the number of vertices divided by 2? For exampl...
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As the title says. It is common sense that sharp things cut, but how do they work at the atomical level? Answer For organic matter, such a...
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Literature states neutral pion decay by QED cannot occur directly because the pion is uncharged. However, I cannot see why Photons are not a...
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Yesterday, I understood what it means to say that the moon is constantly falling (from a lecture by Richard Feynman ). In the picture below ...
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This image from NASA illustrates drag coefficients for several shapes: It is generally accepted that some variation of the teardrop/airfoil...
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