Monday, 23 January 2017

electromagnetism - Can Maxwell's equations be derived from Coulomb's Law and Special Relativity?


As an exercise I sat down and derived the magnetic field produced by moving charges for a few contrived situations. I started out with Coulomb's Law and Special Relativity. For example, I derived the magnetic field produced by a current $I$ in an infinite wire. It's a relativistic effect; in the frame of a test charge, the electron density increases or decreases relative to the proton density in the wire due to relativistic length contraction, depending on the test charge's movement. The net effect is a frame-dependent Coulomb field whose effect on a test charge is exactly equivalent to that of a magnetic field according to the Biot–Savart Law.


My question is: Can Maxwell's equations be derived using only Coulomb's Law and Special Relativity?


If so, and the $B$-field is in all cases a purely relativistic effect, then Maxwell's equations can be re-written without reference to a $B$-field. Does this still leave room for magnetic monopoles?



Answer



Maxwell's equations do follow from the laws of electricity combined with the principles of special relativity. But this fact does not imply that the magnetic field at a given point is less real than the electric field. Quite on the contrary, relativity implies that these two fields have to be equally real.


When the principles of special relativity are imposed, the electric field $\vec{E}$ has to be incorporated into an object that transforms in a well-defined way under the Lorentz transformations - i.e. when the velocity of the observer is changed. Because there exists no "scalar electric force", and for other technical reasons I don't want to explain, $\vec{E}$ can't be a part of a 4-vector in the spacetime, $V_{\mu}$.


Instead, it must be the components $F_{0i}$ of an antisymmetric tensor with two indices, $$F_{\mu\nu}=-F_{\nu\mu}$$ Such objects, generally known as tensors, know how to behave under the Lorentz transformations - when the space and time are rotated into each other as relativity makes mandatory.



The indices $\mu,\nu$ take values $0,1,2,3$ i.e. $t,x,y,z$. Because of the antisymmetry above, there are 6 inequivalent components of the tensor - the values of $\mu\nu$ can be $$01,02,03;23,31,12.$$ The first three combinations correspond to the three components of the electric field $\vec{E}$ while the last three combinations carry the information about the magnetic field $\vec{B}$.


When I was 10, I also thought that the magnetic field could have been just some artifact of the electric field but it can't be so. Instead, the electric and magnetic fields at each point are completely independent of each other. Nevertheless, the Lorentz symmetry can transform them into each other and both of them are needed for their friend to be able to transform into something in a different inertial system, so that the symmetry under the change of the inertial system isn't lost.


If you only start with the $E_z$ electric field, the component $F_{03}$ is nonzero. However, when you boost the system in the $x$-direction, you mix the time coordinate $0$ with the spatial $x$-coordinate $1$. Consequently, a part of the $F_{03}$ field is transformed into the component $F_{13}$ which is interpreted as the magnetic field $B_y$, up to a sign.


Alternatively, one may describe the electricity by the electric potential $\phi$. However, the energy density from the charge density $\rho=j_0$ has to be a tensor with two time-like indices, $T_{00}$, so $\phi$ itself must carry a time-like index, too. It must be that $\phi=A_0$ for some 4-vector $A$. This whole 4-vector must exist by relativity, including the spatial components $\vec{A}$, and a new field $\vec{B}$ may be calculated as the curl of $\vec{A}$ while $\vec{E}=-\nabla\phi-\partial \vec{A}/\partial t$.


You apparently wanted to prove the absence of the magnetic monopoles by proving the absence of the magnetic field itself. Well, apologies for having interrupted your research plan: it can't work. Magnets are damn real. And if you're interested, the existence of magnetic monopoles is inevitable in any consistent theory of quantum gravity. In particular, two poles of a dumbbell-shaped magnet may collapse into a pair of black holes which will inevitably possess the (opposite) magnetic monopole charges. The lightest possible (Planck mass) black holes with magnetic monopole charges will be "proofs of concept" heavy elementary particles with magnetic charges - however, lighter particles with the same charges may sometimes exist, too.


No comments:

Post a Comment

Understanding Stagnation point in pitot fluid

What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...