I am doing research on Faraday cages for school, and I want to know how it works. Faraday cages can have holes in them, and if the diameter is smaller than the wavelength of waves you want to block, the Faraday cage blocks the waves. I have found a formula that the transmission of electromagnetic waves through a hole with diameter $d (< λ)$ equals $(d/λ)^4$. However, I cannot find anywhere why. It does not make sense in my head, for me it seems like a truck cannot be too long to go through a tunnel, but why is this not the same for waves? My guess is that it has to do with quantum mechanics, can someone please explain to me how this works? Thanks!
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
Why can't we use fissions products for electricity production ? As far has I know fissions products from current nuclear power plants cr...
-
How can we know the order of a Feynman diagram just from the pictorial representation? Is it the number of vertices divided by 2? For exampl...
-
As the title says. It is common sense that sharp things cut, but how do they work at the atomical level? Answer For organic matter, such a...
-
This image from NASA illustrates drag coefficients for several shapes: It is generally accepted that some variation of the teardrop/airfoil...
-
Problem Statement: Imagine a spherical ball is dropped from a height $h$, into a liquid. What is the maximum average height of the displaced...
-
In most books (like Cardy's) relations between critical exponents and scaling dimensions are given, for example $$ \alpha = 2-d/y_t, \;\...
-
I have been studying scattering theory in Sakurai's quantum mechanics. The phase shift in scattering theory has been a major conceptual ...
No comments:
Post a Comment