I read some older posts about this question, but I don't know if I'm getting it. I'm working with a Lagrangian involving some Levi Civita symbols, and when I calculate a term containing $\epsilon^{ijk}$ I obtain the contrary sign using $\epsilon_{ijk}$. I always apply the normal rules: $\epsilon_ {ijk}=\epsilon^{ijk}=1$; $\epsilon_ {jik}=\epsilon^{jik}=-1$ etc. I believed that there is no difference between covariant and contravariant Levi-Civita symbol. What do you know about this?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
I am making a simple little program that needs to simulate a physics concept. However, I am not exactly sure how the physics concept actuall...
-
The gravitation formula says $$F = \frac{G m_1 m_2}{r^2} \, ,$$ so if the mass of a bob increases then the torque on it should also increase...
-
Sorry if this question is a bit broad but I can't find any info on this by just searching. The equation q = neAL where L is the length o...
-
I stand up and I look at two parallel railroad tracks. I find that converge away from me. Why? Can someone explain me why parallel lines s...
-
I have an hydrogenic atom, knowing that its ground-state wavefunction has the standard form $$ \psi = A e^{-\beta r} $$ with $A = \frac{\bet...
-
This image from NASA illustrates drag coefficients for several shapes: It is generally accepted that some variation of the teardrop/airfoil...
-
I've just begun reading C. Pethick and H. Smith's textbook "Bose-Einstein condensation in dilute gases" (Cam. Uni. Press)....
No comments:
Post a Comment