I read some older posts about this question, but I don't know if I'm getting it. I'm working with a Lagrangian involving some Levi Civita symbols, and when I calculate a term containing ϵijk I obtain the contrary sign using ϵijk. I always apply the normal rules: ϵijk=ϵijk=1; ϵjik=ϵjik=−1 etc. I believed that there is no difference between covariant and contravariant Levi-Civita symbol. What do you know about this?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
Why can't we use fissions products for electricity production ? As far has I know fissions products from current nuclear power plants cr...
-
How can we know the order of a Feynman diagram just from the pictorial representation? Is it the number of vertices divided by 2? For exampl...
-
As the title says. It is common sense that sharp things cut, but how do they work at the atomical level? Answer For organic matter, such a...
-
This image from NASA illustrates drag coefficients for several shapes: It is generally accepted that some variation of the teardrop/airfoil...
-
Literature states neutral pion decay by QED cannot occur directly because the pion is uncharged. However, I cannot see why Photons are not a...
-
Problem Statement: Imagine a spherical ball is dropped from a height h, into a liquid. What is the maximum average height of the displaced...
-
I have been studying scattering theory in Sakurai's quantum mechanics. The phase shift in scattering theory has been a major conceptual ...
No comments:
Post a Comment