I am trying to read the original paper for the AKLT model,
Rigorous results on valence-bond ground states in antiferromagnets. I Affleck, T Kennedy, RH Lieb and H Tasaki. Phys. Rev. Lett. 59, 799 (1987).
However I am stuck at Eq. (1):
we choose our Hamiltonian to be a sum of projection operators onto spin 2 for each neighboring pair: H=∑iP2(Si+Si+1)=∑i[12Si⋅Si+1+16(Si⋅Si+1)2+13]
In the equation, H is the proposed Hamiltonian for which the authors intend to show that the ground state is the VBS ground state: the (unique) state with a single valence bond connecting each nearest-neighbor pair of spins, i.e. a type of spin-1 valence-bond-solid. Moreover, Si and Si+1 are spin-1 operators, and P2 is the projection operator onto spin-2 for the pair (i,i+1).
I have several questions here.
First, how did the authors come up with the first line by observing the spin-1 valence-bond-solid state as below (Fig. 2 of the above paper)?
Why do they use a Hamiltonian which is "a sum of projection operators onto spin 2 for each neighboring pair"?
- What does it mean exactly to project spin-1 pairs to spin 2, and why do they want to project to spin 2?
I feel there are quite a few steps skipped between here and standard QM textbooks. It would be great if somebody could recommend me some materials bridging them.
- Secondly, I want to know how to go from the first line to the second line of equation (1). However, I couldn't find the explicit form of P2 either in the paper or by googling. Could somebody give me a hint?
Edit: I found a chapter of the unfinished book "Modern Statistical Mechanics" by Paul Fendley almost directly answers all my questions.
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