Is there still no known origin of the law of inertia?

To quote Feynman at about the 21 minute mark of the first Messenger Lecture on The Character of Physical Law,

...that the motion to keep it going in a straight line has no known reason. The reason why things coast forever has never been found out. The law of inertia has no known origin.

This lecture was given in year 1964. I'm curious if there has been any progress since then to understanding the origin of the law of inertia. If yes, if a layman explanation can be provided.

Edit 1, adding the definition of scientific law for discussion in comments. From Kosso (2011, pp 8):

One more term should be clarified, ‘‘law’’. Theories differ in terms of their generality. The big bang theory, for example, is about a singular, unique event. It is not general at all, despite being about the entire universe. The theory of gravity, either the Newtonian or relativistic version, is very general. It is about all objects with mass and their resulting attraction. The most general theories, including the theory of gravity, are laws. In other words, laws are theories of a particular kind, the ones that identify whole categories of things and describe their relations in the most general terms. Laws start with the word ‘‘all’’, as in, All this are that, All massive objects are attracted to each other.

Being a law has nothing to do with being well-tested or generally accepted by the community of scientists. A theory is a law because of what it describes, not because of any circumstances of confirmation. And a theory is or is not a law from the beginning, even when it is first proposed, when it is a hypothesis. The status of law is not earned, nor does it rub off; it is inherent in the content of the claim. So neither ‘‘theoretical’’ nor ‘‘law’’ is about being true or false, or about being well-tested or speculative. ‘‘Hypothetical’’ is about that kind of thing.

See Kosso (2011) for the definitions of the terms Theory, Fact, and Hypothesis, if needed.

Edit 2, I acknowledge I do not know what definition Feynman held when using the term "law" in the Messenger Lecture (as I had quoted above). It seems he also referred to it as the principle of inertia (The Feynman Lectures on Physics, Volume I, Chp 7, Sec 3 - Development of dynamics):

Galileo discovered a very remarkable fact about motion, which was essential for understanding these laws. That is the principle of inertia—if something is moving, with nothing touching it and completely undisturbed, it will go on forever, coasting at a uniform speed in a straight line. (Why does it keep on coasting? We do not know, but that is the way it is.)

An interesting side note, according to user Geremia (link):

Galileo, Newton, or even the medieval physicist Jean Buridan (1295-1358), who developed the notion of impetus, were not the first to discover the law of inertia.

The first was John Philoponus ("The Grammarian"), who lived in the late 5th and 2nd ½ of 6th century A.D.

Edit 3, I agree that no "Laws" of physics have a "known" reason. But that is not the point of my question. My question is whether or not any progress has been made on understanding the origin (i.e. the mechanisms underlying) the law of inertia. For example, Darcy's Law can be derived from the Navier–Stokes equations. The Navier-Stokes equations arise from applying Isaac Newton's second law to fluid motion. I suppose this regression to more fundamental mechanisms or reasons can go ad infinitum (as explained here by Feynman. He also addresses the "why" question, Aaron Stevens).

Edit 4, I am not making Feynman into a Pope nor am I appealing to his authority. He has simply made a statement about the current understanding of the law of inertia. Of course, I attributed his statement to him. I then asked a question about his statement. I made no assumption as to whether his statement was correct or not. If anyone cared to make an answer pointing out his statement is incorrect I would be grateful to hear it.