Wednesday, 29 July 2015

electromagnetism - Why is the magnetic flux proportional to the current (Inductance)?


I'm trying to understand the reasoning behing this formula, or how to get there, if possible, using Maxwell's equations:


$$\Phi_i = L_i I_i + M_{ij} I_j$$


From the wikipedia page of inductance I got this formula which is basically faraday's law:


$$v(t) = - \frac{d\Phi(t)}{dt}$$


But then they somehow get to this one which is what I don't understand:


$$v(t) = L \frac{d i(t)}{dt}$$


I've tried doing some things with the Maxwell equations but I couldn't really get to anything interesting.




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