I have naive question about Einstein action for field-free case: S=−116πG∫√−gd4xgμνRμν. It contains the second derivatives of metric. When we want to get the Einstein equation (which doesn't contain the third derivatives), we must use variational principle. The variation of "problematic" factor Rμν (which contains the second derivatives) is equal to δRμν=Dγ(δΓγμν)−Dν(δΓλμλ). So the corresponding variation of action may be rewritten in a form δRμνS=−116πG∫d4x√−g∂λ(gμνδΓλμν−gμλδΓσμσ).(1) Then one likes to say that it is equal to zero. But why it must be equal to zero? It isn't obvious to me. After using the divergence theorem (1) becomes δRμνS=−116πG∫dSλ√−g(gμνδΓλμν−gμλδΓσμσ). Why it must be equal to zero? It is metric, not physical field, even if Christoffel symbols refer to the gravitational field, so I don't understand why it must be equal to zero at infinity.
Answer
It seems that OP is pondering the following.
What happens in a field theory [in OP's case: GR] if spacetime M has a non-empty boundary ∂M≠∅, and we don't impose pertinent (e.g. Dirichlet) boundary conditions (BC) on the fields ϕα(x) [in OP's case: the metric tensor gμν(x)]?
I) Firstly, it should stressed that when people say that the infinitesimal variation δS0 of the action S0[ϕ] [in OP's case: the Einstein-Hilbert action SEH] vanishes on-shell, i.e. when the Euler-Lagrange equations [in OP'case: Einstein's field equations] are satisfied, it is implicitly assumed that the infinitesimal variations δϕα(x) of the fields ϕα(x) only take place in the interior/bulk of spacetime M away from the boundary ∂M. In such cases, the infinitesimal variation δS0 clearly vanishes on-shell, as part of the stationary action principle, aka. Hamilton's principle.
II) Secondly, if the sole purpose of the infinitesimal variation δϕα(x) is just to locally (re)derive the equations of motion (=the Euler-Lagrange equations) in an interior/bulk point x0 of spacetime M, it is enough to choose localized variations δϕα(x) with support in sufficiently small compact neighborhoods around this point x0. In particular, one may assume that δϕα(x) and all its (higher) derivatives vanish at the boundary ∂M for such variations, and still derive the equations of motion.
III) Thirdly, if we do not impose adequate BC, then the global notion of a functional derivative
δS0δϕα(x)
may not exists, i.e. there may not exists a globally defined function 1 fα(x) = fα(ϕ(x),∂ϕ(x),∂2ϕ(x),…;x)
such that
δS0 = ∫Mdnx fα(x) δϕα(x)
for all allowed infinitesimal variations δϕα(x). In plain English, the problem is that we cannot use the usual integration-by-parts argument when deriving the Euler-Lagrange expression since we have not imposed sufficient BC to ensure that boundary terms vanish. Then one must typically amend the bulk action S0 with a boundary action S1 [in OP's case: The Gibbons-Hawking-York boundary action 2 SGHY], which only lives on the boundary ∂M. The total action then reads S0+S1.
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1 If the function (2) happens to exist, it is unique, and we will call it the functional derivative of S0, and denote it by the symbol (1).
2 See also these Phys.SE posts for more on the Gibbons-Hawking-York boundary term.
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