Saturday, 11 February 2017

quantum field theory - Two conflicting definitions of chirality


Consider a Majorana fermion embedded in a Dirac spinor, ψ=(ψLiσ2ψL).

The Majorana fermion ψL is left-chiral, i.e. it transforms in the (1/2,0) representation of the Lorentz group.


Now, I've also been told that you can project out chirality components using PL=(1γ5)/2 and PR=(1+γ5)/2. Then I would have expected that PLψ=ψ,PRψ=0

though this is clearly not the case.


The problem also appears when considering charge conjugation, C:ψiγ2ψ.

Charge conjugation does not affect a Majorana fermion, so it leaves the representation chirality alone. But on the other hand, if PLψ=ψ, then PR(Cψ)=Cψ
so it flips the other kind of chirality.


What is the difference between these two notions of chirality? I think my problem is that I'm conflating properties of the field (the 'representation' chirality) and properties of individual quantum states (the PL/PR chirality). But I haven't seen any textbook distinguish between the two.




Answer



I think your problem is mostly a problem of notation. If you write two Weyl spinors inside a Dirac spinor, you should use different symbols to avoud confusion, i.e.


ψ=(ξLiσ2ξL).


Now, your object Ψ has a left-chiral component ξL and a right-chiral component iσ2ξL. (A Dirac spinor is an object that transforms according to the (1/2,0)(0,1/2) representation.) Thus it should be no surprise that PRΨ0. The point of a Majorana fermion is that the left- and right-chiral components are not independent, i.e. the right-chiral component is simply the charge conjugate of the left-chiral component. A general Dirac spinor, in contrast reads


ψ=(ξLηR),


with iσ2ξLηR. One way to think about Majorana spinors is as "real" Dirac spinors. See sidenote 12 here.


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