Consider the partition function
Z[0]=∫[DAμ][Dπ]e−i∫d4x(−12(∂π)2−14FμνFμν+aM2π2(FμνFμν)). where a is O(1) coefficient, suppressed by some mass-scale M.
The action is gauge invariant. Is the path-integral measure invariant under the following field redefinition?
Aμ→Aμ+∂μπ◻
Or it gives an anomalous contribution to the action, being a non-local transformation?
Answer
So, I would start by giving a precise definition of ∂μπ◻, which is ∂μπ(x)◻=◻−1x∫d4yδ(4)(x−y)∂yμπ(y)=∫d4y Δ(x−y)∂yμπ(y)=−∫d4y ∂yμΔ(x−y)π(y)=∫d4y ∂xμΔ(x−y)π(y) where Δ(x−y) is defined as ◻Δ(x−y)=δ(4)(x−y) the fields transformations are the following A′μ=Aμ+∂μπ◻=Aμ+∫d4y ∂xμΔ(x−y)π(y)π′=π the action is invariant under this transformation.
It is now possible to write the Jacobian matrix Jij(x,x′)=δϕ′i(x)δϕj(x′)=[δ(4)(x−x′)∂μΔ(x−x′)0δ(4)(x−x′)] remember that functional derivatives generate distributions and must be evaluated at different points. Furthermore the Jacobian can be considered a 2×2 matrix where in each entry there is a matrix with continuos indices x,x′. Once the theory is regularized the determinant can be evaluated.
The formula for the determinant of a matrix of matrices is det since in our case we have that C = 0 and so \det J = \det(\delta^{(4)}(x-x'))^2 = \exp\left(2\,tr\log \delta^{(4)}(x-x')\right) this determinant is clearly an highly singular object and the theory must be regularized in order to evaluate it, we can choose \delta^{(4)}(0)=\lim_{\Lambda\rightarrow\infty} \int \frac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}\, \exp\left({-\frac{D^\mu D_\mu}{\Lambda}}\right) where D_\mu=\partial_\mu+i A_\mu and D^\mu D_\mu is the gauge invariant laplacian. You see that \det J=\exp\left( 2\,\int d^4x\,\delta^{4}(0)\, tr\, \log 1\right)=1 where 1 is the trivial transformation \pi'=\pi and A'_\mu =A_\mu. So you see that the tr\log 1=0 and the transformation is not anomalous since the regularizating function does not contribute to the trace. The chiral anomaly has a nontrivial trace of the log with the regularized delta \int d^4x\,tr\,\delta^{4}(0) \log M\neq0 and therefore you get the anomaly etc, in this case it is zero.
Another way of seeing that I think is that the \pi field can be exactly integrated out Z=\int \mathcal{D} A\, \det\left(\square-\frac{2a}{M^2} F^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}\, e^{i\int d^4x\, \frac{1}{4}F^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}}
and so the field transformation becomes a simple shift in the field which leaves the path integral measure invariant. Furthermore a gauge anomaly would change the gauge invariance of the effective action \Gamma[A] = -\frac{i}{2}\log\det\left(\square-\frac{2a}{M^2} F^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}\right) but it is gauge invariant since the field \pi is left unchanged by the tranformation.
Fun fact: if you calculate the determinant and integrate away the the field modes between M and $\Lambda
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