Sunday, 18 June 2017

lagrangian formalism - Confusion about what the Euler-Lagrange equation says


I roughly understand the concept of the Lagrangian $L = T - V$ as well as the idea of stationary action $\delta \mathcal{S} =0$. However, I am confused what the Euler-Lagrange equation actually says.


Consider the Euler-Lagrange equation: \begin{equation} \frac{\partial L}{\partial q} - \frac{d}{dt} \left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}}\right) = 0 \end{equation}


Here's my confusion:


To me, this looks like an empty mathematical exercise. If I know the partial derivatives $\frac{\partial L}{\partial q}$ and $\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}}$ and can take the derivative with respect to $t$ of the latter, what is the use of plugging all that into this setup? That's like saying after I show $2 + 3 = 5$, then show $x + y = z$, where $x=2,y=3,z=5$. In short, an empty exercise since it would be the same proof showing $x + y = z$ as showing $2 +3 = 5$ in this case.


Can someone explain what I am misunderstanding?




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