Tuesday, 11 June 2019

newtonian mechanics - Is angular frequency the same as angular velocity or are they different?


I know there are duplicates. But the answers seem to disagree and also I have more specific questions related to this title.


First of all, most questions on this site which ask this question have at least two answers of which one is at variance with the other.


Some say they are the same thing, just that one is scalar 'magnitude ' and one is a vector with 'direction'. On the other hand you have some answers saying they are completely different things apart from the case of complete cyclical motions of constant velocity.



Don't these answers contradict each other? You have these types of answers posted on a few of such questions.


Wikipedia too, in 'angular frequency ' states that it's just the same as angular velocity. How is that possible? Isn't it wrong? At least in oscillating systems which don't have complete circular motion with constant velocity. The angular velocity is just the derivative of theta while angular frequency is omega.


I am very confused. When I am asked about an angular velocity of an oscillator, does that mean omega? Or does that mean derivative of theta?
The two don't seem to be identical at all. For omega you get a constant which is dependent on some given quantities. While the derivative of theta turns out to be completely different and is dependent on t=time and has a cos or sin functions for it's own function.


To sum it up. There is a lot of confusion here , and seemingly contradictionary material as well. Can someone please make it clear?-




No comments:

Post a Comment

Understanding Stagnation point in pitot fluid

What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...