Maxwell's equations can be derived from a Lagrangian formulation using the Lagrangian term (modulo some constants) L=−14FμνFμν−AμJμ. Focusing on the free term for the moment, I've seen mentioned (though I can't find a source right now) that the F2 term is the only possible gauge-invariant Lagrangian for electromagnetism.
Is this the case? How can we prove it?
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