OK so I am having a conceptual crisis about Hydrodynamics.
1) Since mass should be conserved, is dmdt=0 ?
2) But I know that the formula ρ1u1A1=ρ2u2A2 exists... and doesn't that mean the mass flux is conserved? Where does this formula come from?
3) How can we derive an expression for dmdt=0 from the continuity equation ∂ρ∂t+∇⋅(ρu)=0
Answer
OK so in the end I found an answer:
Derivation
Mass is conserved, so dmdt=0
But m=∭ so that \frac{dm}{dt} = \iiint \frac{\partial \rho(\mathbf{r}, t)}{\partial t}d^3\mathbf{r} = 0. From the continuity equation \frac{\partial \rho(\mathbf{r}, t)}{\partial t} = -\nabla \cdot(\rho\mathbf{u}). So \iiint \frac{\partial \rho(\mathbf{r}, t)}{\partial t}d^3\mathbf{r} = 0 \quad\text{implies} \quad -\iiint \nabla \cdot(\rho\mathbf{u}) d^3\mathbf{r}=0 which using Stokes' theorem becomes \iint \!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\;\;\;\subset\!\supset (\rho\mathbf{u})\cdot d\mathbf{S} = 0
Applying this to a flow like the one in the diagram
so that the velocity is parallel to the cross sectional areas (A_1 and A_2) and there is no vertical component of the velocity in the top and bottom surfaces.
Assuming the density and the velocity are constants over that area (at a fixed x), the integral becomes: \rho_1A_1\mathbf{v_1} = \rho_2A_2\mathbf{v_2}
\textbf{Possible second derivation}
There should also be another way of deriving this:
Starting once again from \frac{dm}{dt} = 0 and using the definition of a convective derivative (or Lagrangian derivative) \frac{d}{dt} = \frac{\partial}{\partial t} + (\mathbf{u}\cdot\nabla) where \frac{\partial}{\partial t} is the Eulerian derivative, we get \frac{\partial m}{\partial t} = -(\mathbf{u}\cdot\nabla)m
No idea how to get to the required equation though. Any pointers?
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