My professor mentioned: A simple way of testing whether a mapping (q,p) to (Q,P) is canonical is by examining:
P·dQ−p·dq
and if it equals to dA (a differential) then it is canonical.
However, I'm wondering why is this the case, since the requirements for canonical map is that at first is P·dQ−Kdt=p·dq−Hdt+dS
(so that the closed contour integral of P·dQ−Kdt to equal that of p·dq−Hdt. Then what about the Kdt and Hdt?
No comments:
Post a Comment