Can anyone show explicitly how the QFT total angular momentum operator ˆ→J=−i∫d3p(2π)3ˆa†→p(→p×∇→p)ˆa→p
gives ˆ→J|→0⟩=0 ?
Derivation of all the above is here. The question is essentially the same but I can't really implement the existing answer mathematically.
|→0⟩ being a momentum eigenstate.
Answer
If the state you're using is just the vacuum, then my comment to your question applies. If otherwise |0⟩=a†0|0⟩, then just use that [ap,a†q]=δp,q1, with q=0 to fix the integral at the term with p=0 through the Dirac delta δp,0.
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