I have been told that a quick way to get the Feynman rules from a Lagrangian is to take an interaction term, forget about the fields and multiply an $i$. This works perfectly for example for QED but I wonder if there is an analogous non rigorous quick way to obtain the feynman rules of for example non abelian gauge theories.
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
Understanding Stagnation point in pitot fluid
What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...
-
Why can't we use fissions products for electricity production ? As far has I know fissions products from current nuclear power plants cr...
-
A rook stands in the lower left corner of an $m\times n$ chessboard. Alice and Bob alternately move the rook (horizontally or vertically, th...
-
Recently I was going through "Problems in General physics" by I E Irodov. In Electromagnetics chapter, there is a question how muc...
-
Yesterday, I understood what it means to say that the moon is constantly falling (from a lecture by Richard Feynman ). In the picture below ...
-
I am having trouble understanding how centripetal force works intuitively. This is my claim. When I have a mass strapped on a string and spi...
-
Work done is defined as the dot product of force and displacement. However, intuitively, should it not be the product of force and the time...
-
What shape does the viewer in a reference frame with $v=0$ perceive? I suppose that since the sphere moves in one direction only (oX only, n...
No comments:
Post a Comment