Quite often (see, for example, this PDF, 50 KB) when discussing the Born-Oppenheimer approximation the following assertion is made: any well-behaved function of two independent variables f(x,y) can always be expanded over the complete set of functions {gi(x)} and {hj(y)} in the following way f(x,y)=∑i∑jcijgi(x)hj(y),(1)
Sometimes an argument in favor of the statement above is that it is equivalent to expanding a function of one variable f(y) over the complete set of functions {hj(y)} f(y)=∑jcjhj(y),
For me it seems like this argument is a bit far-fetched. So my question is: how do we know that (1) is true? Is it a theorem, or an axiom, or something?
Answer
Start with f(x,y). Fix a certain x, let's call it x0. Obviously then f(x0,y) is a function of just one variable, so it has an expansion in the complete set, f(x0,y)=∑jcj(x0)hj(y)
While the expansion coefficients now depend on x0, since we get a different y-dependent function for each value of x0 that we fix, the ability to expand doesn't depend on that. So we might as well call it just x again,
f(x,y)=∑jcj(x)hj(y)
Next step: Since cj(x) is a single-variable function of x, we can expand it: cj(x)=∑icijgi(x)
Putting it all together, f(x,y)=∑i∑jcijgi(x)hj(y)
EDIT: In the true fashion of a physicist, I did assume that the functions are sufficiently well behaved to do all these steps. Technically we have to worry about various notions of convergence of functions, but especially for square-integrable Hilbert spaces we should be fine :)
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