Consider 1-D space. Let S and S' be two inertial reference frames. Let A and B be two events.
Co-ordinates of A and B under S are A = (xA,tA) and B = (xB,tB).
When we say events coincide - it simply means they have same space-time co-ordinates.
i.e. if (xA = xB) and (tA = tB), then w.r.t S, events A and B coincide.
Let me state a theorem: If A and B coincide in S, then they will the coincide in S' (hence in every and any IRF i.e. two events being coincident is NOT a relative concept)
Q1 - Why is this theorem? Is there a deeper assumption and understanding regarding space-time behind this concept? (I'm not looking for an answer basis Lorentz Transformation - but a more physical / maybe more basic argument). Or is this just an assumption of Special Relativity?
Q2 - If 2 balls A and B collide - they will collide in every IRF. How can I derive this basis above theorem? i.e. how can I "precisely" express collision of 2 balls as two events which coincide?
(I'm asking the above question to better understand space-time, events etc at a little conceptual level and I'm having difficulty in understanding them, Thanks for your help)
Answer
It's a lot simpler than you think. Suppose an event has coordinates x in some reference frame, where x contains both space and time coordinates within it. To get the coordinates x′ of the same event in some other reference frame, you apply some function, x′≡f(x).
If two events A and B coincide, their coordinates are the same, xA=xB. You want a proof of the "theorem" that in any other reference frame, x′A=x′B. Now hold on to your seat, because this profound result can be beautifully proven in airtight, perfectly rigorous formal mathematics as: x′A=f(xA)=f(xB)=x′B.
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