My teacher proposed this "simple" proof that the 4-potential is a 4-vector which I am very skeptic about.
Since under gauge transformation the 4-four potential transforms as Aμ↦Aμ+∂μλ,
λ being a scalar function, it follows that Aμ must trasform as a 4-vector under Lorentz transformation, since ∂μ is one.
Is he right? What am I missing? I asked him for clarification but didn't get any more information other than this.
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