I wonder how you prove that energy is conserved under a time translation using Noether's theorem. I've tried myself but without success. What I've come up with so far is that I start by inducing the following symmetry transformation hs: q→hs(q(t))=q(t)ˆhs: ˙q(t)→ˆhs(˙q(t))=˙q(t)t→t′=t+sϵ
I found this book, Lanczos, The variational principles of mechanics, page 401, which explicit shows the energy conservation using Noether's theorem. Thou It seems that I can not follow the step from equation 7 to 8. Can someone explain to me why the intregal looks the way it does? Have they taylor expanded the expression somehow?
Answer
Comments to OP's post (v4):
OP is trying to prove via Noether's theorem that no explicit time dependence of the Lagrangian leads to energy conservation.
OP's transformation seems to be a pure horizontal infinitesimal time translation t′−t =: δt = −ϵ,(horizontal variation)
q′i(t)−qi(t) =: δ0qi = 0,(no vertical variation)q′i(t′)−qi(t) =: δqi = −ϵ˙q.(full variation)It is explained in my Phys.SE answer here why this transformation (A)-(C) cannot be used to prove energy conservation.In eq. (1) on p. 401, the Ref. 1 is instead considering the following infinitesimal transformation t′−t =: δt = −ϵ,(horizontal variation)
q′i(t)−qi(t) =: δ0qi = ϵ˙q,(vertical variation)q′i(t′)−qi(t) =: δqi = 0.(full variation)This is the same infinitesimal transformation as Section IV in my Phys.SE answer here, except for the fact that ϵ≡α is allowed to be a function of time t. Therefore the variation of the action S≡A is not necessarily zero, but of the form δS = ∫dt jdϵdt,where the bare Noether current j=h is the energy function, cf. eq. (8) on p. 402 in Ref. 1. The t-dependence in ϵ is tied to the Noether trick explained in this Phys.SE post. This in turn can be pieced together into a proof of the on-shell energy conservation dhdt ≈ 0,cf. eq. (9) on p. 402 in Ref. 1.
References:
- C. Lanczos, The variational principles of mechanics, 1970; Appendix II.
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