I just have a trouble making a full analogy between Lorentz Algebra Representation in Quantum Field Theory (QFT) and SU(2) representation in Quantum Mechanics (QM).
To make my point, I will write few things that I think is true for the case of QM. We first start by looking at the rotation matrices in Classical Mechanics, represented by matrices R∈SO(3).
Then, we associate unitary matrices with R, D(R), and these matrices form SU(2) group. Now, we look at the algebra of SU(2) to find fundamental commutation relationships among the generators of D(R), namely, [Ji,Jj]=iϵijkJk
Then we look for different representations of these generators characterized by different angular momentums (which defines the dimension of the vector space that generators act).
The representation that we use, then also gives an explicit expression for our unitary matrices D(R) by D(R)=exp(i→J⋅ˆnℏ).
Also, I can define vectors and tensors by this unitary matrix, D(R). For instance, vector Vi transforms by D(R)−1ViD(R)=RijVj.
Now, I want to similarly understand QFT's case with the Lorentz group. (I am currently following QFT text by Srednicki).
I start with Lorentz matrices Λ, and associate it with unitary matrices, U(Λ). I have a similar definition of 4-vector in QFT as in QM: U(Λ)−1ViU(Λ)=ΛijVj.
I can also define the generators of U(Λ), Mμν, and derive its fundamental commutation relations, [Mμν,Mρσ]=⋯.
Now, making complete analogy with QM, I expect to find representation of Mμν and the representation of U(Λ) by exponentiating Mμν.
But instead, we proceed by looking for the representation of Λ, instead of U(Λ) like in QM. For instance, as for left Weyl-spinor representation, I find representation L(Λ): U(Λ)−1ψa(x)U(Λ)=Lba(Λ)ψb(Λ−1x).
Now, I have a generator SL (which is now not necessary to be Hermitian (unlike QM)), which gives L(Λ) when exponentiated (rather than U(Λ) (unlike QM)).
I do not get explicit expression (unlike QM) for U(Λ), so I do not know what to think of them or its generators Mμν. For instance, I get expressions that involve both Mμν and SμνL ((whereas in QM, since I looked for a representation of D(R) (rather than R), quantity analogous to Mμν and SμνL were the same thing)).
I do know that there is no finite unitary representation of the Lorentz algebra, so I think that must be the missing piece in my understanding. I would like to make a complete analogy with QM, could anyone please be of help?
Thank you.
Answer
The confusion here arises because we are not fully analogous to non-relativistic QM here.
Given a (quantum or classical) field ϕ, we usually specify whether it is a "scalar", "spinor", "tensor", whatever field. This refers to a finite-dimensional representation ρfin of the Lorentz group the field transforms in as an element: ϕΛ↦ρfin(Λ)ϕ
All of this is often brushed under the rug because for the Lorentz invariant vacuum |Ω⟩, we have ϕ|Ω⟩Λ↦ρfin(Λ)ϕ|Ω⟩
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