I was given a problem in a Classical Mechanics course that went somehow like the following:
"Consider a particle of mass m moving under the presence of a force →F=kˆx×→v, where ˆx is an unit vector in the positive direction of the x axis and k any constant. Prove that the movement of a particle under this force is restricted to a circular motion with angular velocity →ω=(k/m)ˆx or, in a more general case, a spiral movement parallel to the direction of ˆx."
In an Electrodynamics elementary college course you can see and solve that a magnetic force sort of as:
m¨→r=qc(→v×→B)
with a magnetic field, say, →B=B0ˆz can drive a particle through a spiral movement in the precise direction of that magnetic field you customize, involving a cyclotron frequency and so, if and only if you input further initial conditions to the movement in x, y and z.
My inquiry then is, how can you prove the relation given above for the angular velocity and conclude a spiral movement, from a classical mechanics perspective? I can see there's a link between both procedures, but I cannot try solving the first one without giving a glimpse to the latter.
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