I'm currently learning some basic functional analysis. Yesterday I arrived at the spectral theorem of self-adjoint operators. I've heard that this theorem has lots of applications in Quantum Mechanics.
But let me first state the formulation of the theorem that I'm using:
Let H be a Hilbert space. There's a 1-to-1-correspondence between self-adjoint operators A on H and spectral measures PA given by A = ∫Rλ dPA. (λ denotes a constant, R denotes the real numbers.)
A corollary is:
Let g:R→R be a function. (Again: R denotes the set of real numbers.) Then: g(A) := ∫Rg(λ) dPg(A)
Pg(A)(Δ) = PA(g−1(Δ)) where Δ denotes a set in the σ-algebra of R.
Okay. Now this is the theorem. First I don't really the application of the corollary in Quantum mechanics. I've heard that suppose you're given an operator A this means that it's easy for you to define operators like exp(A), especially on infinite dimensional Hilbert spaces. This indeed could be useful in quantum mechanics. Especially when thinking about the "time-evolution operator" of a system.
However then I say: Why do you make things so complicated? Suppose you want to calculate exp(A). Why don't you define exp(A) := 1+A+1/2A2+… and require convergence with respect to the operator norm. An example: Consider the vectorspace spanned by the monomials 1,x,x2,… and let A=d/dx. Then you can perfectly define
exp(d/dx) := 1+d/dx+1/2d2/dx2+…
and require convergence with respect to the operator norm.
In addition to that I've heard that the spectral theorem gives a full description of all self-adjoint operators. Now why is that the case? I mean okay..there's a one to one correspondence between self-adjoint operators and spectral measures...but why does this give me any information about "the inner structure of the operator"? (And why is there this λ in the integral? Looks somehow like an eigenvalue of A? But I'm just guessing)
I'd me more than happy, if you could provide me with some intuition and ideas of how the theorem can be used.
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