Time Dilation = 1/√1−v2/c2 but why? How do you get to that conclusion? I know you use Pythagoras'theorem and my current understand goes like this:
vt2+ct2=cT2
then you take the square root of Ct2 and from there I think you divide by c to get the time dilation but I'm not sure. And if this is correct what steps do you take to get to the formula used now
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