The mixed Faraday tensor Fμν explicitly in natural units is:
(Fμν)=(0ExEyEzEx0Bz−ByEy−Bz0BxEzBy−Bx0)
and thus has the same form as a general element of the Lorentz algebra so(1,3). Is there a physical interpretation of this or is it co-incidence?
The mixed Faraday tensor Fμν explicitly in natural units is:
(Fμν)=(0ExEyEzEx0Bz−ByEy−Bz0BxEzBy−Bx0)
and thus has the same form as a general element of the Lorentz algebra so(1,3). Is there a physical interpretation of this or is it co-incidence?
What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...
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