Sunday, 21 May 2017

quantum mechanics - Why is langlehatJxrangle=langlehatJyrangle=0 if we have a state invariant under rotations about the z-axis?


In Leslie E Balletine chapter 8 they state that for a state ρ=|jmjm| that is an eigenstate of J2 and Jz we have that Jx=Jy=0 and J2x=J2y How do you prove this? What are the physical implications?




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