I have read that the mass term appearing in the electroweak Lagrangian stops it (the Lagrangian) from becoming gauge invariance. Can someone explain where and why this term is creating the problem?
Answer
Let's assume a typical fermionic mass-term (interacting leptons and quarks are spin 1/2-particles):
ˉΨΨ=ˉΨ(1+γ52+1−γ52)Ψ=|ˉΨ(1±γ5)=((1∓γ5)Ψ)†γ0|=
But if we assume only U(1) gauge theory, there isn't doublets, so the mass term is indeed gauge invariant (except Majorana case, when Ψ=ˆCΨ, where ˆC refers to the charge conjugation).
This is the reason why we must include (gauge-invariant) interaction of the Yukawa-type with scalar doublets. For example, I will illustrate my statement by describing the mechanism of appearance of mass of charged leptons into the Standard model. We "replace" the mass term (1) by Lint=−GˉΦLφΨR+h.c.
L∫=−Gη(ˉΨLΨR+h.c.)−Gσ(ˉΨLΨR+h.c.).
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