First question: Is the question I asked valid in the first place? Is it really true? Second question: If so, is it because the exchanged heat between the bodies between which the temperature gradient exists is also infinitesimal and hence negligible? The explanation I provided is not convincing for me as, in physics, "infinitesimal" is not always synonymous with "negligible".
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
Why can't we use fissions products for electricity production ? As far has I know fissions products from current nuclear power plants cr...
-
A rook stands in the lower left corner of an $m\times n$ chessboard. Alice and Bob alternately move the rook (horizontally or vertically, th...
-
How can we know the order of a Feynman diagram just from the pictorial representation? Is it the number of vertices divided by 2? For exampl...
-
Consider the lagrangian of the real scalar field given by $$\mathcal L = \frac{1}{2} (\partial \phi)^2 - \frac{1}{2} m^2 \phi^2 - \frac{\lam...
-
As the title says. It is common sense that sharp things cut, but how do they work at the atomical level? Answer For organic matter, such a...
-
Yesterday, I understood what it means to say that the moon is constantly falling (from a lecture by Richard Feynman ). In the picture below ...
-
Recently I was going through "Problems in General physics" by I E Irodov. In Electromagnetics chapter, there is a question how muc...
No comments:
Post a Comment