there is this text book that is giving me a hard time for a while now:
It shows that Bloch wave functions can be written as Ψn→k(→r)=1√Vei→k→run→k(→r),
However, and here starts my problem, it then concludes that therefore, the Bloch functions Ψn→k(→r) fulfill ∫Vd3rΨ∗n→k(→r)Ψn′→k′(→r)=
But I just don't get the last two lines. I mean, the integral in the second last line actually should read ∫VUCd3rei(→k′−→k)→ru∗n→k(→r)un′→k′(→r), shouldn't it? And, if that is true and I didn't miss something important already, I can't understand how that would yield these two δs ...
I'm almost sure I missed something, but I just desperately keep fail getting it, so any help would be greatly appreciated!
EDIT
Thank you very much for your reactions! However, it seems I failed to state my problem clear enough, so I figured it might be best to tell you what my approach so far was step by step so may be someone can see where I actually go wrong:
Starting with ∫Vd3rΨ∗n→k(→r)Ψn′→k′(→r),
However even assuming this is just a typo (which I'm not so sure of ...), I would be confronted with the integral ∫VUCd3rei(→k′−→k)→ru∗n→k(→r)un′→k′(→r) and I can't see how those two δs would arise from that either.
Thank you all again for your reactions and I hope I know actually stated my problem clearly.
Answer
Let I∼∑→Rei(→k′−→k)→R∫VUCd3rΨ∗n→k(→r)Ψn′→k′(→r)
The term ∑→Rei(→k′−→k)→R gives you a ∼δ(→k−→k′) term.
Now, you have : Ψ∗n→k(→r)Ψn′→k′(→r)δ(→k−→k′)∼ei(→k′−→k).→ru∗n→k(→r)un′→k′(→r)δ(→k−→k′)
Now, with the δ(→k−→k′) term, ei(→k′−→k).→r becomes 1.
So you have :
Ψ∗n→k(→r)Ψn′→k′(→r)δ(→k−→k′)=u∗n→k(→r)un′→k(→r)δ(→k−→k′)
where we have replaced k′ by k, in the indice of un′→k.
So, finally, after integration on r, we get :
I∼δnn′δ(→k−→k′)
No comments:
Post a Comment