I was trying to answer the question of the flying ball here on the basis of Newton's third law and momentum conservation. Here is what I have tried.
Lets take a ball mass of m1 (index 1 is the ball) hits the man with mass m2 (index 2 is the man). The velocity of the ball is u1. Then the force on the man is m1(v1−u1)/t=−m2(v2−u2)/t
Now the second case, man hitting ball at rest at the same speed of that of the ball in case 1. i.e, u1. The force on the ball is m2(v2−u2)/t=−m1(v1−u1)/t
Since u1=u2, the equations do not give equal forces on an object.
So that the pain should be different, shouldn't it ?
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