I have seen a unpolarized wave defined in a number of places (e.g. here) as a wave such that: Ex=E0cos(kz−ωt)Ey=E0cos(kz−ωt+φ) Where φ=φ(t) is a random function in time.
My question is why do we not have φ=φ(x,y,z,t) with it been a random function in time and space?
(This question follows from discussion in the comments of: Introducing a phase, what changes?)
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