Thursday, 25 July 2019

electromagnetism - Why does the vacuum permeability have the value of $pi$ in it?


The vacuum permeability, or the capability of the vacuum to permit magnetic field lines, contains the value of $\pi$. Why? What does this have to do with the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter?



Answer



This is nothing but a choice of units.


Let me make that (hopefully) more clear by explaining more about how choosing units in electromagnetism works:





  • Coulomb's Law is $\vec F = k \frac{q_1 q_2}{r^2} \hat{\vec r}$ for the force between two charges $q_1$ and $q_2$. $k$ is different in the various systems of units - essentially, it depends on how the unit of charge is defined.




  • Ampere's Law is $\vec F = k' I_1 I_2 \oint_{C_1} \oint_{C_2} \frac{d\vec r_1 \times (d\vec r_2 \times \vec r)}{|r|^3}$ for the force between two currents along $C_1$ and $C_2$. $k'$ is different in the various systems of units - essentially, it depends on how the unit of current is defined.




In electrodynamics, we find out that $$ k / k' = c^2 $$ otherwise, we are free to choose. In CGS, we define $k = 1$, and in SI $k' = 10^{-7} \frac{Vs}{Am}$.


Now we introduce constants $$ \mu_0 = 4\pi\, k', \quad \varepsilon_0 = \frac{1}{4\pi k} $$ That is nothing more than a definition - the factors of $4\pi$ simplify some formulas later on, e.g. when fields are integrated over the surface of a sphere.


No comments:

Post a Comment

Understanding Stagnation point in pitot fluid

What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...