In my exam today I've been given this problem, yet even with the results at hand I simply can't warp my head around it;
Given the picture below, a bar is placed on two conducting rails with a resistor (in the form of a single thin wire) at the left. Now at t=0 the magnetic field changes which causes the bar to move. (and a current flows through the "circuit").
The current can easily be found by Lenz's law:
E=−dΦbdt=−ℓd(Bx)dt=−ℓxdBdt−ℓBv
Now this is follow up text for the problem
It may be assumed that the conducting bar has a negligible mass and friction, so it will immediately move to a position x in which there is no force exerted on it.
b) Explain why the relation between the actual position x and the actual value of the magnetic field B is given by Bx=B0x0.
What did the prof try to explain here? No force means constant speed, so not a "position" at all right?
Well the result sheet shows:
No force means d(Bx)dt=0 Hence Bx is constant .....
what???? Sorry but maybe it stems from the fact that I already didn't understand what "no force" meant in the text but I can't understand this.
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