The question assumes the standard formalism with projector-valued measures rather than POVMs. Suppose a measurement has two possible outcomes, and the corresponding probabilities are greater than 0 and less than 1. Neither outcome is therefore certain. Then why is it certain that either outcome is obtained (as it seems, if the probabilities add up to 1)?
Added after four answers: All the answers provided so far elaborate on the comment by @Vladimir: "It is not a 'quantum mechanical' feature but a consequence of probability definition." @Lubos and @Mark cast the question into a quantum-mechanical form, e.g., why do the absolute squares of the amplitudes associated with the possible outcomes of a measurement add up to 1? They also explain why the sum remains equal to 1. (However, for a decaying particle the probability of finding it decreases, while the probability of finding its decay products increases. So the "conservation of probability" has something to do with the proper conservation laws.) @David makes it clearest why these answers are insufficient.
Keep in mind that no actual measurement is perfect. While theorists may ignore this, experimenters know well enough that in many runs of a given experiment no outcome is obtained. (The efficiency of many real-world detectors is rather low.) This means that in order to make the probabilities add up to 1, one discards (does not consider) all those experiments in which no outcome is obtained.
So let me follow up with another question.
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