How is it possible to define the energy for a massless particle in a Freedman-Robertson-Walker metric if the Lagrangian is not invariant under time-translation? I have postulated the simplest Lagrangian for a massless particle (a Lagrange multiplier times the constraint) and it is obviously not time-invariant. Not only: if I work since at the beginning using the proper time as a evolution parameter, the dynamics in the Lagrange parameter and the spatial components is physically inconsistent, giving meaningless results like a scale factor equal to the Lagrange multiplier. Is there something wrong in my assumption for the Lagrangian?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
I have an hydrogenic atom, knowing that its ground-state wavefunction has the standard form ψ=Ae−βrwith $A = \frac{\bet...
-
At room temperature, play-dough is solid(ish). But if you make a thin strip it cannot just stand up on it's own, so is it still solid? O...
-
Sometimes I am born in silence, Other times, no. I am unseen, But I make my presence known. In time, I fade without a trace. I harm no one, ...
-
I want to know what happens to the space a black hole crosses over as our galaxy travels through space.
-
Small vessels generally lean into a turn, whereas big vessels lean out. Why do ships lean to the outside, but boats lean to the inside of a ...
-
I'm sitting in a room next to some totally unopened cans of carbonated soft drinks (if it matters — the two affected cans are Coke Zero...
-
What exactly are the spikes, or peaks and valleys, caused by in pictures such as these Wikipedia states that "From the point of view of...
No comments:
Post a Comment