How is it possible to define the energy for a massless particle in a Freedman-Robertson-Walker metric if the Lagrangian is not invariant under time-translation? I have postulated the simplest Lagrangian for a massless particle (a Lagrange multiplier times the constraint) and it is obviously not time-invariant. Not only: if I work since at the beginning using the proper time as a evolution parameter, the dynamics in the Lagrange parameter and the spatial components is physically inconsistent, giving meaningless results like a scale factor equal to the Lagrange multiplier. Is there something wrong in my assumption for the Lagrangian?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
A rook stands in the lower left corner of an $m\times n$ chessboard. Alice and Bob alternately move the rook (horizontally or vertically, th...
-
I am researching Mercury's orbital precession. I have considered most perturbations and general relativity. I am still not satisfied. I ...
-
(The puzzle statement now identifies these numbers as equivalent.) O O ...
-
I am having trouble understanding how centripetal force works intuitively. This is my claim. When I have a mass strapped on a string and spi...
-
Yesterday, I understood what it means to say that the moon is constantly falling (from a lecture by Richard Feynman ). In the picture below ...
-
In this question/answer Does someone falling into a black hole see the end of the universe? , it is stated that an observer free falling tow...
-
A crime has been carried out by one person, there are 5 suspects. Each suspect is asked under polygraph who they think committed the crime. ...
No comments:
Post a Comment