Tuesday, 9 February 2016

quantum field theory - Unitary Lorentz transformation on quantized Dirac spinor


I am stuck again on page 59 of Peskin and Schroeder. In particular, I do not know how they get equation (3.110). Let me first give some background in the way that I understand it (but I might be completely wrong).


A unitary operator U(Λ) acts on states as follows: |p,sU(Λ)|p,s

and therefore any operator, such as a Dirac field, transforms as: ψ(x)=U(Λ)ψ(x)U1(Λ)
Now, from equation (3.109): U(Λ)aspU1(Λ)=EΛpEpasΛp
we can find the transformation of the positive frequency solution of ψ: U(Λ)ψU1(Λ)=U(Λ)d3p(2π)312Epsaspus(p)eipxU1(Λ)
U(Λ)ψU1(Λ)=d3p(2π)312EpsU(Λ)aspU1(Λ)U(Λ)us(p)U1(Λ)eipx
and using equation (3.109) this becomes: U(Λ)ψU1(Λ)=d3p(2π)312Ep2EΛpsasΛpU(Λ)us(p)U1(Λ)eipx
and from this point I have no idea how to get to equation (3.110). If anybody could push me in the right direction, then this will be greatly appreciated. (I am aware that the integration measure is Lorentz invariant.)


Another question: does anybody have any other references/notes/books where they discuss how the quantized Dirac operator field transforms? I find P&S explanation thoroughly confusing (as may have become clear from the questions I have been asking recently on this forum :) ), but I cannot find any other book that treats this stuff.



Answer



You can find the transformation law for us(p) by demanding that the spinor field transform as


ψ(x)ψ(x)=U1(Λ)ψ(x)U(Λ)=Λ1/2ψ(x).



You already know how the creation / annihilation operators transform from the condition that the 1-particle states transform correctly and you can then find the correct transformation law for us(p). Then, armed with this transformation law you can do the transformation in the opposite direction (which is what Peskin and Schroeder do) and you get their result.


In particular, we have


U1(Λ)ψ(x)U(Λ)=d3p(2π)312EpU1(Λ)aspU(Λ)us(p)eip.Λx+similar terms


where I've ignored the summation and the other operator since its analogous to this.


Changing the dummmy variable p to Λp we get


U1(Λ)ψ(x)U(Λ)=d3Λp(2π)312EΛpU1(Λ)asΛpU(Λ)us(Λp)eip.x


since (Λp)(Λx)=px


We also have U1(Λ)asΛpU(Λ)=2Ep2EΛpasp giving us


U1(Λ)ψ(x)U(Λ)=d3Λp(2π)32Ep2EΛpaspus(Λp)eip.x


The measure is Lorentz invariant so we can rewrite it as



U1(Λ)ψ(x)U(Λ)=d3p(2π)312Epaspus(Λp)eip.x


Now we demand that this equals


Λ1/2ψ(x)=Λ1/2d3p(2π)312Epaspus(p)eip.x


and we immediately see that we must have


us(Λp)=Λ1/2us(p).


Now you can apply the inverse transformation, ψ(x)U(Λ)ψ(x)U1(Λ) to get the result Peskin & Schroeder have.


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