I just started in Griffith's Introduction to electrodynamics and I stumbled upon the divergence of ˆrr2 , now from the book, Griffiths says:
Now what is the paradox, exactly? Ignoring any physical intuition behind this (point charge at the origin) how are we supposed to believe that the source of →v is concentrated at the origin mathematically? Or are we forced to believe that because there was a contradiction with the divergence theorem?
Also how would the situation differ if →v was the same vector function but not for a point charge? Or is it impossible?
Answer
Now what is the paradox, exactly?
The paradox is that the vector field →v considered obviously points away from the origin and hence seems to have a non-zero divergence, however, when you actually calculate the divergence, it turns out to be zero.
How are we supposed to believe that the source of →v is concentrated at the origin mathematically?
Most important point to observe is that ∇.→v=0 everywhere except at the origin. The diverging lines appearing are from the origin. Our calculations cannot account for that since →v blows up at r=0. Moreover, eq. (1.84) is not even valid for r=0. In other words, ∇.→v→∞ at that point.
However, if you apply the divergence theorem, you will find ∫∇.→v dV=∮→v.d→a=4π
This serves as the motivation to define the Dirac delta function: a function which vanishes everywhere except blowing up at a point and has a finite area under the curve.
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