Noise processes in engineering and physics are frequently assumed to be Gaussian processes. This allows use of convenient analytical techniques. The question then arises as to why natural processes are Gaussian. In particular I'd like to understand why electrical Johnson noise is a Gaussian process.
Possible line of reasoning
One line I've found is that the Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process is Gaussian and satisfies the Fokker Planck equation. This could suggest that any physical process obeying the Fokker Planck equation is an Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process, and therefore a Gaussian process. However, this still leaves the question of why Johnson noise obeys the Fokker Planck equation.
An obvious related question is whether or not Johnson noise is an Ornstein-Uhlenbeck process.
Answer
There are several ways I can interpret the question, so my main focus is going to be on the autocorrelation of an Ornstein-Uhlenbeck (O-U) process. So what is an O-U process and how is it different from regular Brownian diffusion?
The stochastic differential equation (SDE) for Brownian diffusion of a particle can be written as dxt=dWt
So you can see in your mind's eye that you as you keep adding these small random displacements to random directions, you're going to end up with diffusion. Another way to describe diffusion, and more common to physicists, is a partial differential equation (the Fokker-Planck equation), where you write the probability distribution of the particle as a function of time and position. Yet another way to write this is as a Wiener path integral (the transformation between these representations go through the Feynman-Kac equation).
Finally, moving to the O-U equation: dxt=−xtdt+dWt
So what do we see? We see that our observation xT at time T depends on where we last saw x. But that this dependence (autocorrelation) dies out exponentially. Indeed, after an infinite amount of time, we have xT=N(0,1). Note that we did not get xT=N(0,T), but rather that our Gaussian is constrained in size and will get to be that size at an exponential speed (as the effect of the last observation dies out).
Ok, so you have a resistor in series with an inductor over some voltage and you write LdIdt=−RI+V
Now why should V be stochastic, and why should it be Gaussian? This is a longer discussion and I am only going to very qualitatively and briefly go over it. Suppose we have some simple system: A particle in a potential and a large number of harmonic oscillators (suggestively called "the heat bath") coupled to it, so that we might write the Hamiltonian (a bit simplified from the Caldeira Leggett model) as H=p22m+V(q)+∑i(p2i2mi+12miω2ix2i)+q∑ixi
Turns out that this can actually be turned into a generalized Langevin equation of the form d2qdt2=−dVdq−∫T0dtdqdtξ(T−t)+R(t)
This can be done more rigorously for basically arbitrary systems describing some phase space evolution by using Mori-Zwanzig theory. There you take a projection operator, which projects onto the subspace that contains the degrees of freedom of interest, and the other degrees of freedom then behave like a thermal bath. Many books make this out to be something very complicated, but it's really just matrix (or really, operator) algebra.
Point being that if you have a system and have perfect knowledge of the entire phase space, if you drop out some details, those details will in many ways act as if there was a Gaussian thermal bath pushing the system around.
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