Saturday 27 June 2020

classical mechanics - Why must allowable physical laws have reversibility?


I'm watching Susskind's video lectures and he says in the first lecture on classical mechanics that for a physical law to be allowable in classical mechanics it must be reversible, in the sense that for any given state $S\in \mathcal{M}$ where $\mathcal{M}$ is the configuration space there should be only one state $S_0\in \mathcal{M}$ such that $S_0\mapsto S$ in the evolution of the system.


Now, why is this? Why do we really need this reversibility? I can't understand what are the reasons for us to wish it from a physical law. What are the consequences of not having it?





No comments:

Post a Comment

Understanding Stagnation point in pitot fluid

What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...