My book of physics (I don't quote it here, since it is in Catalan) says that in the 1887 Michelson - Morley experiment, after getting the transversal and longitudinal phase shifts, they claim that the number of fringer observed will belong to the number of times that both phase shifts contains 2 pi because that is the phase two maximums repeat. My question is: why is here said that waves should form maximums? Because as I understand it, the expected result was to obtain a destructive interference whose phase shift could be jsed to determine Earth's velocity. If they were expecting a destructive interference, shouldn't the book use the phase two minimums repeat?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
Understanding Stagnation point in pitot fluid
What is stagnation point in fluid mechanics. At the open end of the pitot tube the velocity of the fluid becomes zero.But that should result...
-
Why can't we use fissions products for electricity production ? As far has I know fissions products from current nuclear power plants cr...
-
How can we know the order of a Feynman diagram just from the pictorial representation? Is it the number of vertices divided by 2? For exampl...
-
As the title says. It is common sense that sharp things cut, but how do they work at the atomical level? Answer For organic matter, such a...
-
This image from NASA illustrates drag coefficients for several shapes: It is generally accepted that some variation of the teardrop/airfoil...
-
Problem Statement: Imagine a spherical ball is dropped from a height $h$, into a liquid. What is the maximum average height of the displaced...
-
In most books (like Cardy's) relations between critical exponents and scaling dimensions are given, for example $$ \alpha = 2-d/y_t, \;\...
-
I have been studying scattering theory in Sakurai's quantum mechanics. The phase shift in scattering theory has been a major conceptual ...
No comments:
Post a Comment